Category: Languages

No, not that stuff that shows up in your e-mail box. That OTHER stuff. Y’know, that shows up on the dinner table. Sometimes. Maybe.

Actually, let me revise: Three cheers for the Hormel corporation, makers of SPAM!

Why?

Well, they’ve adopted a pretty easy-going stance regarding the use of the term “spam” for unsolicited commercial e-mail. They’ve recognized (a) that they really can’t stop the language from evolving new uses of a term they originated and (b) that the new use doesn’t conflict with their trademark term SPAM. So they’ve published a statement saying that they don’t mind people calling unsolicited commercial e-mail “spam” as long as they leave it in lower-case letters to distinguish it from their trademark term “SPAM” (all caps).

This contrasts with the behavior of other corporations who have gotten really uptight when people started using their terms in new ways. Some (*cough* Lucas, *cough* Disney, *cough* Xerox) have become distinctly prickly and sometimes even sued or threatened lawsuits when people wanted to do things like . . . oh . . . apply the term “Star Wars” to the Strategic Defense Initiative or the term “Mickey Mouse” to inferior or poorly-thought-out things and ideas or “Xerox” to photocopying done on something other than a machine made by the Xerox corporation.

So three cheers for Hormel and their being such great guys about the new use of “spam.”

Makes me want to go out and buy a can of SPAM.

(Which, incidentally, works great on the Atkins Diet.)

READ THE STATEMENT.

A reader writes:

I’ve recently responded to your blog’s Latin lesson entry — and this question was rolling in my mind for the past week, so I figured that you may be able to answer from a linguistic viewpoint.

Fr. Amorth says in [an] interview:

This same Jesus had taught us a prayer for liberation in the Our

Father: “Deliver us from the Evil One. Deliver us from the Person of

Satan.” This prayer has been mistranslated and today people pray

saying, “Deliver us from evil.” One speaks of a general evil whose

origin is essentially unknown. But the evil against which Our Lord

Jesus taught us to fight is, on the contrary, a concrete person: it is

Satan.

My question is this — Is Fr. Amorth’s translation accurate for the Lord’s Prayer?

Based off of your blog’s lesson, I think it’s possible — as you noted there are no articles in Latin:

Latin does not have words for “a,” “an,” or “the.” This means that if

you wanted to say “voice,” “a voice,” or “the voice,” in Latin you

would just say vox. When you translate from Latin into English, you

will have to guess based on the context whether you should add “a,”

“an,” “the” or nothing at all to the word you are translating.

Let me start by saying that I have grave reservations about Fr. Amorth and do not recommend his writings. This Rock published a review of one of Fr. Amorth’s books a while ago (online here, scroll down) which highlights some of the problems with his writings. I would add two thoughts: (1) I think the reviewer was far too kind to Fr. Amorth’s book; he could have (and, to my mind, should have) slammed Fr. Amorth far harder than he did. (2) Nothing I have seen from Fr. Amorth since this review was published has altered my opinion of the matter.

Having said that, there is something to what he is saying in this case. The language that is most relevant to the matter, though, is not Latin.

It would be ideal if we had an Aramaic original of the Lord’s Prayer, but we don’t–at least not an indisputable one, and Aramaic is kind of fuzzy regarding the definiteness of nouns, anyway. Unlike Hebrew and Arabic, it does not have a definite article, but (sometimes) uses a grammatical feature of nouns called “state” to express definiteness. If a noun was meant to be definite, they would put it in “the emphatic state.” Unfortunately, over time Aramaic started to use the emphatic state for nouns even when they aren’t definite (which is to say, even when we wouldn’t put a “the” in front of them in English). In modern Aramaic the emphatic state has almost completely taken over, and this trend was already established in Jesus’ day, even if it had not yet completely taken over.

So we have to use the canonical form of the Lord’s Prayer, which is in Greek. Here we have an advantage, because Greek (like English and Hebrew and Arabic but unlike Latin and Aramaic) does have a definite article (i.e., a word for “the”). When we consult the Greek text of the Lord’s Prayer in Matt. 6:13, we find that the phrase corresponding to “from evil” is “apo tou ponErou,” which would literally be “from the evil” (apo = from, tou = the, ponErou = evil).

That’s not the end of the story, though, because the translator has to make a choice at this juncture. He could translate the phrase as “from the evil one,” meaning the devil, or he could take note of the fact that Greek sometimes overuses the definite article (from an English-speaker’s perspective). In particular, Greek often wants to use the definite article in front of abstract concepts like “Truth” or “Beauty” . . . or “Evil.” (It was the same in Palestinian Jewish Aramaic in Jesus’ day: The emphatic state was often used for abstract concepts.)

Therefore, we can’t say with certainty here. It’s debatable. Different translators render it different ways, and both are legitimate.

The Catechism reflects this uncertainty. When it first broaches the meaning of the phrase, it says:

CCC 2851 In this petition, evil is not an abstraction, but refers to a person, Satan, the Evil One, the angel who opposes God. The devil (dia-bolos) is the one who ‘throws himself across’ God’s plan and his work of salvation accomplished in Christ.

But this doesn’t mean that the petition refers only to the devil, for he’s certainly contained within the range of the phrase even if it’s a more generic reference to evil. The Catechism thus also notes:

CCC 2854 When we ask to be delivered from the Evil One, we pray as well to be freed from all evils, present, past, and future, of which he is the author or instigator. In this final petition, the Church brings before the Father all the distress of the world. Along with deliverance from the evils that overwhelm humanity, she implores the precious gift of peace and the grace of perseverance in expectation of Christ’s return By praying in this way, she anticipates in humility of faith the gathering together of everyone and everything in him who has ‘the keys of Death and Hades,’ who ‘is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty.’[Rev 1:8,18; cf. Rev 1:4; Eph 1:10]

Deliver us, Lord, we beseech you, from every evil and grant us peace in our day, so that aided by your mercy we might be ever free from sin and protected from all anxiety, as we await the blessed hope and the coming of our Savior, Jesus Christ.

Sounds to me like the Catechism may be hedging its bets. In any event, the biblical text isn’t decisive one way or the other.

One more reason to exercise caution when Fr. Amorth says something.

A reader writes:

I’ve recently responded to your blog’s Latin lesson entry — and this question was rolling in my mind for the past week, so I figured that you may be able to answer from a linguistic viewpoint.

Fr. Amorth says in [an] interview:

This same Jesus had taught us a prayer for liberation in the Our
Father: “Deliver us from the Evil One. Deliver us from the Person of
Satan.” This prayer has been mistranslated and today people pray
saying, “Deliver us from evil.” One speaks of a general evil whose
origin is essentially unknown. But the evil against which Our Lord
Jesus taught us to fight is, on the contrary, a concrete person: it is
Satan.

My question is this — Is Fr. Amorth’s translation accurate for the Lord’s Prayer?

Based off of your blog’s lesson, I think it’s possible — as you noted there are no articles in Latin:

Latin does not have words for “a,” “an,” or “the.” This means that if
you wanted to say “voice,” “a voice,” or “the voice,” in Latin you
would just say vox. When you translate from Latin into English, you
will have to guess based on the context whether you should add “a,”
“an,” “the” or nothing at all to the word you are translating.

Let me start by saying that I have grave reservations about Fr. Amorth and do not recommend his writings. This Rock published a review of one of Fr. Amorth’s books a while ago (online here, scroll down) which highlights some of the problems with his writings. I would add two thoughts: (1) I think the reviewer was far too kind to Fr. Amorth’s book; he could have (and, to my mind, should have) slammed Fr. Amorth far harder than he did. (2) Nothing I have seen from Fr. Amorth since this review was published has altered my opinion of the matter.

Having said that, there is something to what he is saying in this case. The language that is most relevant to the matter, though, is not Latin.

It would be ideal if we had an Aramaic original of the Lord’s Prayer, but we don’t–at least not an indisputable one, and Aramaic is kind of fuzzy regarding the definiteness of nouns, anyway. Unlike Hebrew and Arabic, it does not have a definite article, but (sometimes) uses a grammatical feature of nouns called “state” to express definiteness. If a noun was meant to be definite, they would put it in “the emphatic state.” Unfortunately, over time Aramaic started to use the emphatic state for nouns even when they aren’t definite (which is to say, even when we wouldn’t put a “the” in front of them in English). In modern Aramaic the emphatic state has almost completely taken over, and this trend was already established in Jesus’ day, even if it had not yet completely taken over.

So we have to use the canonical form of the Lord’s Prayer, which is in Greek. Here we have an advantage, because Greek (like English and Hebrew and Arabic but unlike Latin and Aramaic) does have a definite article (i.e., a word for “the”). When we consult the Greek text of the Lord’s Prayer in Matt. 6:13, we find that the phrase corresponding to “from evil” is “apo tou ponErou,” which would literally be “from the evil” (apo = from, tou = the, ponErou = evil).

That’s not the end of the story, though, because the translator has to make a choice at this juncture. He could translate the phrase as “from the evil one,” meaning the devil, or he could take note of the fact that Greek sometimes overuses the definite article (from an English-speaker’s perspective). In particular, Greek often wants to use the definite article in front of abstract concepts like “Truth” or “Beauty” . . . or “Evil.” (It was the same in Palestinian Jewish Aramaic in Jesus’ day: The emphatic state was often used for abstract concepts.)

Therefore, we can’t say with certainty here. It’s debatable. Different translators render it different ways, and both are legitimate.

The Catechism reflects this uncertainty. When it first broaches the meaning of the phrase, it says:

CCC 2851 In this petition, evil is not an abstraction, but refers to a person, Satan, the Evil One, the angel who opposes God. The devil (dia-bolos) is the one who ‘throws himself across’ God’s plan and his work of salvation accomplished in Christ.

But this doesn’t mean that the petition refers only to the devil, for he’s certainly contained within the range of the phrase even if it’s a more generic reference to evil. The Catechism thus also notes:

CCC 2854 When we ask to be delivered from the Evil One, we pray as well to be freed from all evils, present, past, and future, of which he is the author or instigator. In this final petition, the Church brings before the Father all the distress of the world. Along with deliverance from the evils that overwhelm humanity, she implores the precious gift of peace and the grace of perseverance in expectation of Christ’s return By praying in this way, she anticipates in humility of faith the gathering together of everyone and everything in him who has ‘the keys of Death and Hades,’ who ‘is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty.’[Rev 1:8,18; cf. Rev 1:4; Eph 1:10]

Deliver us, Lord, we beseech you, from every evil and grant us peace in our day, so that aided by your mercy we might be ever free from sin and protected from all anxiety, as we await the blessed hope and the coming of our Savior, Jesus Christ.

Sounds to me like the Catechism may be hedging its bets. In any event, the biblical text isn’t decisive one way or the other.

One more reason to exercise caution when Fr. Amorth says something.

Okay, last night I re-ordered the data in my first Latin-by-reading-Scripture lesson to reflect the other ordering I mentioned.

HERE ‘TIS.

Which do y’all (especially the non-Latin speakers) prefer?

(Use the comments box to leave feedback.)

I’ve got another collective brainpower request.

I continue to try to find ways to make teaching Latin easier on students than what most textbooks do, and I’ve got a draft of a lesson I’d like y’all’s thoughts on.

The teaching strategy the lesson uses is giving you a familiar (or somewhat familiar) text: Scripture. As you read, Latin words begin to be introduced into the text, with notes explaining the words, grammar, and pronunciation as you go. Over time, as the student learns, more and more of the text will be Latin, until eventually almost the whole text will be straight Neo-Vulgate. As the student encounters common words over and over again, the repetition will help fix them in his memory.

HERE’S THE LESSON.

I’d appreciate it if y’all (especially non-Latin speakers) would read it and tell me in the comments box whether you think this would be a productive teaching technique to use and whether you might be interested in using this technique yourself.

Suggestions for improvements are also welcome, though bear in mind that this is only a draft I banged out in a few minutes last night, so there are lots of quibbles that could be made with it (e.g., have I explained the pronunciation in the best way?, does it need a better font color or typeface?). Those are things that would be fixed in the tweaking/editing stage, but suggestions about tweaking the methodology itself would be most welcome.

For example, it would be possible to keep the basic method the same but rearrange the information in a more student-friendly format. E.g., having the English-Latin text across the top of a page (I’m thinking fo a printed page here) and having a single vocabulary list and set of grammar notes below it. Arranging the info that way might (or might not) be easier on the student–which is my primary concern.

FOR COMPARISON PURPOSES, HERE’S A MOCK-UP OF FORMATTING THE SAME DATA THE OTHER WAY.

Much obliged, folks!

Tech is giving us a whole bunch of new words that are becoming fixtures and entering dictionaries (major, dead-tree dictionaries, at that). One such word is “blog,” which did not exist before December 1997.

The last few days have seen the advent of a new word that has the potential to become a fixture: “pajamahadeen.”

It isn’t yet listed in any dictionaries. Not even Google has it indexed at the moment, though that will swiftly change. The term is spreading through the blogosphere.

“Whence cometh ‘pajamahadeen’?” you may be wondering if you haven’t been reading blogs following the unfolding CBS phony memo scandal.

It appears to have been coined by Jim Geraghty of Kerry Spot. Here’s why:

A few days ago on FOX News, former CBS News executive V.P. Jonathan Klein spoke dismissively of the bloggers who were absolutely slaying the credibility of CBS’s phony memo story. Specifically, he said:

You couldn’t have a starker contrast between the multiple layers of check and balances [at ’60 Minutes’] and a guy sitting in his living room in his pajamas writing.

Indignant bloggers, very few of whom admit to wearing pajamas, had endless fun with this. In the end, they adopted pajamas as the official uniform of bloggers and images like this one started showing up on blogs:

So much for the “pajama” part of “pajamahadeen.” Whence the “-hadeen” part?

As you may surmise, it’s from the Arabic word “mujahedeen,” which is sometimes translated “fighters” or “strugglers.” Those translations, though, are whitewashes of what the term really means. “Mujahedeen” is the plural of “mujahed.” Arabic words (like Hebrew and Aramaic words) tend to be built around three consonants with various prefixes, suffixes, and vowels applied. The prefix “mu-” is often used to form words referring to a person who is or does something, and the three consonant root of “mujahed” is J-H-D.

Know what other Arabic word that has passed into English currency has the root J-H-D?

That’s right: “jihad.”

In the most literal sense, “jihad” means “struggle,” but because it has been used (since the time of Muhammad) to refer to the duty Muslims (note the “mu-” prefix; same deal) have to struggle for Islam–often by force of arms–it has come to have the principal meaning “holy war.”

Thus if we were to give a translation of “mujahedeen” that captures the resonance it has for the Muslim community, it would be “jihadists” or “holy warriors.”

So: “pajamahadeen” = “pajama” + “mujahedeen,” the pajama-clad holy warriors of the blogosphere.

This probably would be rendered less colorfully in a future dictionary entry. Perhaps: “Webloggers who aggressively analyze and attack their opponents’ arguments.”

If you want to see a picture of the pajamahadeen in action, check out this cartoon (click to enlarge):

The original source of this is IMAO.us, which also features a digitally enhanced “special edition” of the cartoon, a la George Lucas.

BTW, if you look around IMAO.us, be sure to bear in mind Rulz 6 and 7.

(Now if I could just convince fellow bloggers to use my coinage “popularity crash” for what happens when too much traffic comes to a web site and makes it inaccessible; e.g., due to a Drudge story linking it.)

Tech is giving us a whole bunch of new words that are becoming fixtures and entering dictionaries (major, dead-tree dictionaries, at that). One such word is “blog,” which did not exist before December 1997.

The last few days have seen the advent of a new word that has the potential to become a fixture: “pajamahadeen.”

It isn’t yet listed in any dictionaries. Not even Google has it indexed at the moment, though that will swiftly change. The term is spreading through the blogosphere.

“Whence cometh ‘pajamahadeen’?” you may be wondering if you haven’t been reading blogs following the unfolding CBS phony memo scandal.

It appears to have been coined by Jim Geraghty of Kerry Spot. Here’s why:

A few days ago on FOX News, former CBS News executive V.P. Jonathan Klein spoke dismissively of the bloggers who were absolutely slaying the credibility of CBS’s phony memo story. Specifically, he said:

You couldn’t have a starker contrast between the multiple layers of check and balances [at ’60 Minutes’] and a guy sitting in his living room in his pajamas writing.

Indignant bloggers, very few of whom admit to wearing pajamas, had endless fun with this. In the end, they adopted pajamas as the official uniform of bloggers and images like this one started showing up on blogs:

So much for the “pajama” part of “pajamahadeen.” Whence the “-hadeen” part?

As you may surmise, it’s from the Arabic word “mujahedeen,” which is sometimes translated “fighters” or “strugglers.” Those translations, though, are whitewashes of what the term really means. “Mujahedeen” is the plural of “mujahed.” Arabic words (like Hebrew and Aramaic words) tend to be built around three consonants with various prefixes, suffixes, and vowels applied. The prefix “mu-” is often used to form words referring to a person who is or does something, and the three consonant root of “mujahed” is J-H-D.

Know what other Arabic word that has passed into English currency has the root J-H-D?

That’s right: “jihad.”

In the most literal sense, “jihad” means “struggle,” but because it has been used (since the time of Muhammad) to refer to the duty Muslims (note the “mu-” prefix; same deal) have to struggle for Islam–often by force of arms–it has come to have the principal meaning “holy war.”

Thus if we were to give a translation of “mujahedeen” that captures the resonance it has for the Muslim community, it would be “jihadists” or “holy warriors.”

So: “pajamahadeen” = “pajama” + “mujahedeen,” the pajama-clad holy warriors of the blogosphere.

This probably would be rendered less colorfully in a future dictionary entry. Perhaps: “Webloggers who aggressively analyze and attack their opponents’ arguments.”

If you want to see a picture of the pajamahadeen in action, check out this cartoon (click to enlarge):

The original source of this is IMAO.us, which also features a digitally enhanced “special edition” of the cartoon, a la George Lucas.

BTW, if you look around IMAO.us, be sure to bear in mind Rulz 6 and 7.

(Now if I could just convince fellow bloggers to use my coinage “popularity crash” for what happens when too much traffic comes to a web site and makes it inaccessible; e.g., due to a Drudge story linking it.)

Setve Ray has ntoiced an inertetsnig fcat aobut the hmuan mnid. (It’s alayws naet wehn one reliazes tihs!)

GET THE SOTRY!

Okay, this post has nothing at all to do with Star Trek. I just wanted to play off the title of Star Trek VI: The Undiscovered Country (arguably the best Star Trek movie thus far; it was the one where the Federation and Klingons had a warming as a sci-fi metaphor for the end of the Cold War).

This post has to do with a discussion I was having with Bill down yonder about Indonesian phonology (i.e., how Indonesians pronounce their words).

The weirdest thing I’ve noticed about Indonesian phonology so far is that K (of all letters) tends to be altered when it is word-final (i.e., at the end of a word). It isn’t simply dropped (like my Gs in “-ing”) but is replaced with a distinct glottal stop, so the word “bapak” (masculine “you”) is pronounced /bapa’/ and the word “tidak” (“no, not”) is pronounced /tida’/.

For folks who aren’t familiar with the term, a glottal stop is when, as you speak, you interrupt the airflow by closing the glottis, or the hole between your vocal chords. You can hear a glottal stop very distinctly when it’s substituted for the Ts in the Cockney pronounciation of “a little bottle” as “a li’le bo’le.”

We use glottal stops all the time in English (even those of us who aren’t Cockneys), we just don’t recognize it because we don’t have a letter for it in our alphabet. (The Arabic alphabet does have a letter for the glottal stop, however. It’s called a hamza.)

You yourself use a glottal stop whenever you pronounce distinctly a word that begins with a vowel. For example, if you aren’t talking and then say the word “apple,” you’ll have a glottal stop before the A because your vocal cords are tensed up.

You also say it in the middle of every time you say “Uh-oh!”

Betcha didn’t know that there’s a consonant in English that we all use but that is completely unnoticed by most of us!

Well, the postman finally decided to deliver the mail that accumulated while I was on vacation. One of the items I was waiting for (in fact, the main item I was waiting for) was my Pimsleur Indonesian CDs.

As y’all may recall, I’ve been wanting to improve my Indonesian skills in anticipation of this year’s Catholic Answers cruise. On the Holland America line, a lot of the staff (particularly the waiters and room stewards) tend to be from Indonesia, and on past cruises I’ve entertained these folks by speaking a little of their native language and asking their help in learning more. This year I wanted to do even more, so I ordered the Pimsleur Indonesian set. Unfortunately, this set is only 10 lessons instead of the usual 30, but at least it’ll give me a good start.

This means I’ll have to put my Japanese studies on hold until I work through the set, but with only ten lessons, that won’t take too long.

I’ve already been using the set, and am quite pleased so far. I already knew parts of the initial conversation that they use at the beginning of every Pimsleur set, which was nice.

I do have one question for Beng or any other readers who speak Indonesian: One of the sounds in the language is a trilled R. Am I right in assuming that these trilled Rs are produced with the tip of the tongue in the front of the mouth (like the Spanish trilled R) or are they produced in the back of the mouth (like the Semitic GH)? Thanks for any help!