Prenatal Testing

A reader writes:

Jimmy. My wife and I are quite pleased that she is expecting our second child. We found out that she was pregnant and the first ultrasound/OB visit is coming up soon.

We did not do any fetal testing with our first child and don’t plan on doing any fetal testing with this child, but I have been unable to find any official church teaching on fetal testing. Obviously there is opposition to almost all abortion, but do you have a good resource for what would be acceptable?

Obviously amnio increases the risk for miscarriage.

Thanks in advance.

First, let me clarify what you wrote regarding abortion. Any deliberate killing of the unborn–either as a means or an end–is homicide and cannot be done, no matter the circumstances. Thus it does not matter if prenatal testing showed that the unborn had a horrible genetic disease. He still has a right to life and can’t be killed.

When and whether prenatal testing is okay depends on two things: (1) the good to be achieved by doing the test and (2) the danger the test itself poses to the child.

If (1) is proportionate to (2) the the test is morally licit. If it is not (i.e., if the danger to the child is proportionately greater than the good to be achieved by the test) then the test is immoral.

Some tests seem to pose little risk to the child and can be done as long as one isn’t tempted to do something immoral (like have an abortion) if one finds out that there is a problem with the child. I gather that ultrasound generally falls into this category.

Other tests, like amniocentesis, pose more of a risk to the child. Such riskier procedures could be performed if there is a proportionate good to be achieved, such as the ability to treat the child in utero and cure the problem. That isn’t possible in many cases yet, but with the growth of gene therapy and nanotechnology it will be possible to help more children in utero.

Things like doing an amnio just so you can find out if the kid has Downs so that he can be whacked, however, are immoral.

So would be (in a few years) doing gene therapy on the kid not to correct genetic flaws but to produce a "designer baby."

HERE’S A STATEMENT FROM THE USCCB FROM 1996 ON THE SUBJECT OF GENETIC TESTING.

From what I can tell, this statement doesn’t seem to have Magisterial authority, but it does contain a helpful summary of recent Magisterial interventions on this topic:

More and more frequently, expectant mothers are undergoing amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, and other tests to detect genetic anomalies in their unborn children.

The most detailed Catholic teaching on this and related subjects appears in a 1987 statement from the Vatican Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith called The Gift of Life (Donum Vitae).  It asks: “Is prenatal diagnosis morally licit? If prenatal diagnosis respects the life and integrity of the embryo and the human fetus and is directed toward its safeguarding or healing as an individual, then the answer is affirmative” (sec. I, no. 2).

The Holy Father builds on this declaration in his recent encyclical The Gospel of Life (Evangelium Vitae), holding that prenatal diagnostic techniques are morally permissible “when they do not involve disproportionate risks for the child and the mother, and are meant to make possible early therapy or even to favor a serene and informed acceptance of the child not yet born” (no. 63).

However, some prenatal testing poses significant risks to the unborn child, especially when performed on embryos before selection for implantation in the womb. Disturbing test results can also tempt individuals to make decisions not in accord with sound morality. The Holy Father goes on to note:

But since the possibilities of prenatal therapy are today still limited, it not infrequently happens that these techniques are used with a eugenic intention which accepts selective abortion in order to prevent the birth of children affected by various types of anomalies. Such an attitude is shameful and utterly reprehensible, since it presumes to measure the value of a human life only within the parameters of “normality” and physical well-being, thus opening the way to legitimizing infanticide and euthanasia. (no. 63)

Hope this helps, and congratulations on your new pre-born baby!

Civil Law & Mass Attendance

A reader writes:

I was just reading http://www.jimmyakin.org/2005/01/attention_cold_.html, and thought about the preparations the New Zealand government has made for a Bird Flu outbreak. One of the precautions is to ban all public meetings.

How would this effect the moral requirement of mass attendance?

There are two dimensions to this question.

The first is the question of whether a potential global pandemic really will be furthered–in a particular area–by attending Mass.

If the answer to that question is "yes" then, regardless of what the civil government says, one is not obliged to go to Mass. In fact, one would be positivley obliged NOT to go. If there is a significant risk (as opposed to a trivial risk) that one will contract or transmit a potentially fatal illness then one simply should not be going to Mass until the danger is past.

The second question is what impact civil laws against public gatherings have on this question.

If the civil law is reasonable the one is not obliged to go–but then that already would be the case since one is not obliged to go if there is a significant risk of disease transmission.

What if the civil law is unreasonable? What if the civil government has flown off the handle and wildly overestimated the danger (and you know this because you are a supergenius doctor specializing in the communicability of bird flu).

In that case, it depends on HOW unreasonable the civil law is.

If you’re going to be fined a penny if you get caught attending–and if a penny is a trivial sum of money to you–then you would not be excused from your Sunday obligation because the penalty of a penny is trivial to you and trivial reasons do not excuse one from Mass.

On the other hand, if getting caught has more serious consequences (e.g., substantial fines, jail time, a criminal record that could harm your ability to get a job) then you definitely WOULD be excused–not in this case because of the bird flu risk (the law is unreasonable, remember?) but because the law itself creates a hardship in going to Mass that is sufficient to excuse one from the Sunday obligation.

In the latter case, the situation is similar to that of lands where the Church is persecuted and Christians face hardship if they attend Mass. In those situations Christians are not bound to attend (though doing so can be meritorious, even heroically so). If your government is behaving irrationally by prohibiting public gatherings in disproportion to the risk then you similarly are excused if you face a non-trivial penalty for attendance.

I don’t know what the bird flu situation is in New Zealand, or whether the government there really has banned public meetings, but flu pandemics can be EXTREMELY deadly, and I’m inclined to cut the government slack and err on the side of caution in preventing anything that could cause MILLIONS of deaths worldwide.

Imprimaturs

A reader writes:

I am currently reading your book The Salvation Controversy, which I received as a Christmas gift.  I am enjoying it very much by the way.  It is very clearly written and easy to understand.

Thanks! Glad you’re enjoying it!

My question is why it does not appear to have an imprimatur.  I trust your scholarship and your work generally in this area; I’m just wondering whether there is something I don’t understand about principles regarding whether or not an imprimatur should be applied for, and how readers should regard its presence or absence.  I always check for the imprimatur in books I am considering reading as a “safety check” on whether the material is reliable from a Catholic perspective.

An imprimatur is not required for a book like The Salvation Controversy. The relevant passage in the Code of Canon Law is as follows:

Can. 827 §1. To
be published, catechisms and other writings pertaining to catechetical
instruction or their translations require the approval of the local ordinary,
without prejudice to the prescript of can. 775, §2.

§2. Books which regard questions pertaining to
sacred scripture, theology, canon law, ecclesiastical history, and religious or
moral disciplines cannot be used as texts on which instruction is based in
elementary, middle, or higher schools unless they have been published with the
approval of competent ecclesiastical authority or have been approved by it
subsequently.

§3. It is recommended that books dealing with the
matters mentioned in §2, although not used as texts in instruction, as well as
writings which especially concern religion or good morals are submitted to the
judgment of the local ordinary.

Since The Salvation Controversy is not meant as a textbook for instruction in Catholic schools, it does not require an imprimatur under §2, which puts it under §3.

Works falling under §3 are not required to have an imprimatur, though the Code does recommend that they be submitted for one.

This recommendation is not generally exercised by Catholic publishers because there are far too many books on these subjects written today and dioceses are simply not set up to handle the in a timely manner–which is the reason that the law was changed in the first place. Previously many more books were required to have an imprimatur, but the publishing explosion of the 20th century made this impracticable. The situation has only accelerated in the twenty years since the revised Code was issued in 1983, and dioceses simply couldn’t handle the load if all books by Catholic that touched on religious matters were submitted for imprimaturs.

As a result, publishers often only submit books for imprimaturs if the nature of the work requires one or if there is a special marketing reason to do so.

Conversely, dioceses are at times resistant to accepting works into the imprimatur process if the nature of the work doesn’t require one, since dioceses don’t generally have full-time censors and so each imprimatur-bound project means that a censor must work on the project in and around whatever other work the censor has to do.

Because of the crunch of work that already exists, some dioceses have waiting lists because they only do imprimaturs during certain times of the year (e.g., during a window in the summer when things are slower), which can play havoc with a publisher’s ability to get the book to market in a timely manner and hit needed sales windows (e.g., the Christmas window).

As a result, publishers and dioceses try to work together to pursue imprimaturs for the projects that require them, but they both try not to overtax the system, which produces problems for both.

The current situation is the reasult of a historical process that is still in motion. The amount of Catholic publishing is growing and is only going to grow further (e.g., on the Internet and via blogs like this one) and there is simply going to be no way to run it all through the imprimatur process. As a result, the future will generate even greater pressures to submit ONLY those works that require an imprimatur, as well as pressure to decrease the number of KINDS of works that require one and to DECENTRALIZE the granting of them even further than it already has been.

Stay tuned.

“Pope Joan”

A reader writes:

On Thursday there will be a Diane Sawyer special about the evidence for a female Pope Joan.  Are there any holes in the historical record that could account for this or is it a completely rediculous claim?  Where could I find some information on this?

I normally recommend J. N. D. Kelly’s book The Oxford Dictionary of Popes, because Kelly is a Protestant historian and he has an appendix in this book that totally slams the Pope Joan myth.

Unfortunately, most couldn’t consult this book before the broadcast, so I suggest these sources:

WIKIPEDIA ON POPE JOAN.

THE CATHOLIC ENCYCLOPEDIA ON POPE JOAN.

The fact that ABC is dumping this story on Thursday in the week between Christmas and New Years (a LOW viewership time) suggests that they don’t have confidence in it, which only increases their culpability in broadcasting it.

OUTRAGE MAY BE EXPRESSED HERE.

Incidentally, a number of years ago I was at my desk at Catholic Answers when I was routed a call from a major Hollywood producer (who shall remain nameless, but who was quite famous and had a lot of credits to his name) who wanted to ask me about sources for Pope Joan to help his upcoming TV/movie project on her.

He was quite alarmed when I told him that Pope Joan was a myth, and he indicated that he was going to go back to the people who had pitched the idea to press them about this fact.

The project never got made.

I wish all producers had as much integrity as this guy did!

Unfortunately, they don’t, and there is a Pope Joan movie coming out of Germany next year.

Communion, Divorce, & C & E Catholics

A reader writes:

I’ve listened to you numerous times on the radio and have a feeling you’re a good person to ask the following question:

My husband and I have been married for many years, raised practicing Catholic children, and are in the process of having our marriage convalidated in the Church.  He is learning and studying the catechism and is interested in converting at some point (raised Mormon).  After Midnight Mass, he asked me why I am not considered worthy to receive the Eucharist at this point but so many people who attend Mass once or twice a year (the C & E’s!) are able to receive.  I have to admit that this bothers me a great deal.  It is painful to sit and watch so many people, including those who are non-Catholic, standing in line to receive the Eucharist.  How can I explain this?  Thanks for your help.

This is a very sensitive question, but I’ll try to answer it as best I can.

The basic answer is that neither persons in your situation (if I understand it correctly) nor the C & Es should be receiving Communion. The difference is that the C & Es don’t seem to know better, whereas you do. This makes your experience more painful than theirs, but it also means that you are better in conformity with God’s will in an important respect, which should be a source of comfort.

Having given the basic answer, I’ll try to flesh it out.

Here’s where it gets really sensitive.

I assume from what you have said that you are a Catholic who, years ago, got married outside the Church without a dispensation from observing the Catholic form of marriage. (If this is not your situation then the following answer does not apply.)

This means that a valid marriage was prevented from coming into existence at that point. Until you have your marriage convalidated, therefore, you are not objectively married and to have marital relations with someone to whom you are not married is objectively and gravely sinful.

It is the presence of this objectively grave sin that prevents you from being able to receive Communion. The situation may be solved either by not having such relations or by having the union convalidated so that there will be an objectively real marriage and the relations will no longer be sinful. If either of these things happens then it will be possible to go to confession and begin receiving Communion.

(NOTE: The fact that a valid marriage did not come into existence when you first attempted it does NOT mean that your children are illegitimate. Assuming that EITHER you OR your husband entered the marriage believing it to be a real marriage then the children will be legitimate.)

The reason that C & E only Catholics should not be receiving Communion is that they are gravely bound to attend Mass each Sunday and holy day of obligation unless prevented from attending by an excusing cause.

Most of them do not have such causes, and those who do not have them are failing to fulfill an obligation that binds gravely and thus also are objectively gravely sinning.

Thus THEY should not be receiving Commuion, either, until such time as they start fulfilling their Sunday and holy day obligations and go to confession.

At least this applies in the archtypical case. (The answer may be affected by the level of knowledge and culpability an individual has.)

I know this is a difficult answer, but I’ve tried to explain it as straightforwardly and simply as I can.

The fact that you are taking steps to rectify your marital situation and that you are refraining from receiving holy Communion until you do reveals that God is working in your heart and that you are responding to his grace by working to bring your situation into conformity with his will–which is ultimately for the good of your own soul and those of your family.

This is a cause for rejoicing and, in the interim, the Church acknowledges and appreciates your efforts and wants to make you feel welcome and a part of the Catholic community. Pope Benedict has personally stressed the need to understand the pain that is experienced by couples in your situation and the need to reach out to them, to help them feel connected to the Church and to God, and to live the Catholic life.

God loves you, and the Church and the pope do, too.

20

Science & Liturgy

A reader writes:

My son went to Mass on Christmas Eve. He’s big time into evolution and tho I’ve tried to get him to read Creator and the Cosmos he wasn’t interested.  For Christmas I gave him the book The Science Before Science ( I think that’s the name) which he was hardly thrilled to get.

Anyway, at the beginning of Mass they read:

Proclamation of the Birth of Christ
from the Christmas Martyrology (Roman Rite)

The twenty-fifth day of December.
In the five thousand one hundred and ninety-ninth year of the creation of the world
from the time when God in the beginning created the heavens and the earth;
the two thousand nine hundred and fifty-seventh year after the flood;
the two thousand and fifteenth year from the birth of Abraham;….

and he took great exception to that.  He said since we KNOW that the earth was not 6000 years old at the time Christ was born we shouldn’t be reading that.  It only perpetuates a falsehood. (I wanted to say "well, were you there?  How do you know it isn’t?  Maybe the earth was created as a middle age earth….maybe mankind is only 6000 years old)  Anyway, he tried to argue that just because it’s in the Bible doesn’t mean it’s true. I said that’s not out of the Bible. His arguments were based on science and religion don’t agree. When I said they do, truth is truth…science has proven that we all come from 1 set of parents…thru DNA research…he said he doen’st think the church should sit and wait till it figures out that science is right (ie Coprenican theory of the rotation of the planets etc.).

So….not that you can argue or win an argument with someone who’s mind is made up..don’t confuse me with facts…what do you say about the reading at church and the years of the age of the earth?  Any suggestions?

It sounds to me as if you and your son have positions that are leading you into conflict unnecessarily.

From the Church’s point of view, there is not a problem with the idea that God used evolution as a means by which he accomplished his purposes in creating man and other species. Neither does the Church insist that the earth is only a few thousand years old. If your son feels that the evidence he has been exposed to points to the existence of an old earth and God’s use of evolution to realize his plans for the world then I would not fight with him about that.

If he believes, on the other hand, that evolution occurred but that God didn’t employ it and that it was a process not subject to God’s providence then I still wouldn’t fight with him about it (or give him books that he doesn’t want to read) but I would point out that at that point he is advancing a view that science has no way of proving. You don’t need to argue about that. It’s just a fact that would be worth pointing out.

I am afraid that I don’t understand completely everything that you recount your son as having said, so some of it I am not able to comment on. However, I would point out that it sounds to me as if he may be pitting science against Scripture in an unnecessary fashion.

For its part, the Church is quite open to the idea that the early material in Genesis is written in a symbolic fashion and thus that one should not expect it to pronounce on issues like the age of the earth or the specific means that God used to give rise to the creatures we now see in the world.

THIS ARTICLE MAY HELP.

As to the specific issue of the dating of Christ’s birth that was read at Mass, your son should bear in mind the genre of the literature he was hearing. This was not a scientific treatise. It was liturgy, and liturgy is in significant measure poetic.

Those dates are not and were never intended to be rock solid and precise. They were just the best estimates that were available at the time the piece was composed, and even then it was known that they were just estimates and that we really can’t date the birth of Christ with precision. People back then knew that it wasn’t a certainty that Christ was born in the 42nd year of Augustus Caesar’s reign (in fact, he was probably born a few years before that), and they knew that we can’t date the creation of the world precisely either.

So take these numbers for what they are: Old fashioned estimates that were put together a long time ago to build up a poetic proclamation to convey a sense of the grandeur and majesty of the birth of God’s Son.

Not a scientific treatise.

Recognizing the nature of liturgy is important here. It not only involves poetry but it also involves tradition. In that way, it is much like Shakespeare. If Shakespeare had written that piece and incorporated it into one of his plays then it would and should continue to be performed today–e.g., by a college drama company, even if the school does not teach in its science classes that these dates are to be taken literally.

In the same way, the Church can include traditional/poetic material in its liturgy that is not to be taken literally and that the Church does not hold forth as literally true when discussing the age of the world in a catechetical text.

See the above-linked article for more on what the Church does hold regarding creation and evolution,

SEE HERE

AND HERE.

When Vampire Novels Get It Wrong–Part III

After writing my previous post on the transfusion issues in Dracula, I ran into another factual problem with the novel. This time it isn’t medical; it’s religious.

Someone had told me about it years ago. In fact, though I was an Evangelical at the time, a friend of mine who was reading the book asked me about it to see if it squared with my understanding of Catholic belief and practice, because it sounded wrong to him.

My friend was right: It was wrong.

Or at least it would be in the real world.

Here’s the issue: Y’know how Dracula is vulnerable to crucifixes? Crucifixes are symbols of Jesus. So if he’s vulnerable to those, he ought to be vulnerable to Jesus himself. (And who isn’t?)

Now, in the novel as in the real world, Jesus isn’t available to descend from the heavens with a shout to rescue the heroes.

But he is present in the Eucharist.

And so Van Helsing (a Dutch doctor who is the leader of those arrayed against Dracula) uses the Host to ward off vampires. Specifically, he uses it in five ways:

  1. He (and others) hold up pieces of the Host in order to ward off vampires–just like they otherwise do with crucifixes (only the Host is more effective since it is more sacred as it isn’t just a symbol of Jesus).
  2. He places pieces of the Host in vampires’ coffins to keep the vampires from being able to take refuge in them.
  3. To help a woman who Dracula has been praying on, he touches a piece of the Host to the forehead, but since she is already infected with latent vampirism it burns a scar on her forehead (this was not Van Helsing’s intent, and the scar disappears when Dracula is killed, signalling that she is free).
  4. A couple of times he draws a circle on the ground, passes the Host over it, and then places fine crumbles from the Host in the circle so that vampires cannot enter or leave the circle.
  5. He takes a whitish material that is described as being like dough or putty and, after putting crumbles from a Host in it, he uses it to line the cracks of a tomb so that a vampire can’t slip into or out of the tomb through the cracks.

To any well-formed Catholic from the real world, this kind of use of the Host is profoundly offensive to pious sensibilities.

In the novel, all of this is done with great reverence, and the novel makes it very clear that Van Helsing considers the Host to be the most sacred thing there is in the whole world. He also tries to avoid using the Host in this way if he can, not wanting to expost it to the presence of evil unnecessarily.

And he explains that what he is doing is okay because he has "an indulgence."

My friend wanted to know if that sounded right to me concerning Catholic belief and practice.

Even as an Evangelical, it didn’t.

The subject is a little ambiguous, though, because what Stoker means by all this isn’t clear. For example, Van Helsing’s remark that he has an indulgence is ambigous.

Stoker may be calling to mind the common misunderstanding that an indulgence is a license to do something sinful (it’s not). If that is what he means then the novel portrays Van Helsing’s use of the Host as something that is sinful in and of itself, but it’s "okay" because Van Helsing is a Catholic and has a hoojoo way of being forgiven in advance through his indulgence.

If that’s what Stoker means then this element of the novel is based on a misunderstanding of Catholic theology, because indulgences do not give one a license to sins. Sins are always sins and cannot be forgiven in advance, only when the person repents of having done them.

On the other hand, Stoker may have meant (and badly phrased) the idea that Van Helsing has an indult allowing him to use the Host in this manner. In other words, he’s received special permission from a competent ecclesiastical authority authorizing him to do this.

If that’s what Stoker meant then the question of how the Host is used in the novel becomes more complex.

In our world, you certainly would never get an indult allowing you to use a Host in this manner. Canon law has no provisions for anything like this. But then vampires aren’t real in the real world, and so in a world where vampires are real canon law may have taken note of this fact and allowed for procedures to deal with this threat.

In fact, in such a world the Church might even have vampire extirpators who are equivalent to exorcists in our world, and Van Helsing may be such an individual.

Supposing such to be the case, what are we to make of Van Helsing’s use of the Host?

Vampire literature has already established the use of sacred things (crucifixes, holy water, rosaries) to ward off or injure vampires and if these lesser holy things do so then it would be expected that the Host would be all the more effective–in fact, the most effective thing possible. (One wonders that vampires don’t burst into flame the moment that a Host is held up to them.)

Where the revulsion comes in is the idea of exposing something so holy to something so evil. It feels like profanation.

But then . . . God allowed the devil to have access to heaven for a sigificant amount of time (see, e.g., the beginning of Job). And Jesus allowed himself to suffer for our sake on the Cross, which was certainly a profanation.

In the Host he can’t even be hurt by the presence of a vampire, nor can his heavenly beatitude be disturbed. So, intrinsically speaking, he suffers no injury.

That is true, though, of any situation in which the Eucharist is profaned, yet profanation is still morally impermissible.

The reason would not seem to be that profanation injures Jesus (it can’t) but that it involves a disrespecting ON OUR PART of the holiness of God.

We can handle the Eucharist in ways that God permits (e.g., receiving holy Communion, reserving it in the tabernacle, carrying it in Eucharistic processions) but not in ways that God does not permit. As long as we are handling the Eucharist in a way that God permits, no profanation is committed.

So in a world where vampires are real, would God allow the Eucharist to be used to ward them off?

I don’t know. He might. (He can do what he wants. He’s God.)

Certain specific ways in which Van Helsing handles the Host seem to me to be more plausible than others (at least in terms of real-world sensibilities.)

For example, holidng up a Host to cause a vampire to stop or flee seems to me to be the least problematic. In fact, something in my memory says that at some points in history (I’m NOT recommending this NOW), consecrated Hosts may have been used in exorcisms–e.g., seeing if the possessed person can tell the difference between a consecrated Host and an unconsecrated host (and thus displaying supernatural knowledge) or holding one up or touching it to the person’s forehead to compel the demon to flee.

If so then we would have a potential real-world parallel to a couple of the things that Van Helsing does (i.e., #1 and #3).

#2 is more problematic because it involves leaving the sacred species to be corrupted by the elements. By plaing the host in a dirt-filled coffin, it will be soiled and eventually the species will corrupt and the Real Presence will cease. Before that happens–in the novel–the deposition of the Host will hallow the place, though, so that it cannot be used by vampires.

#4 is more problematic yet because it involves the destruction of a Host not by the elements but by human agency–APART from the way that God has ordained–in the real-world–for humans to disassociate the sacred species (i.e., by consuming them and, when this is not possible, by dissolving them in water).

#5 is the same and even worse because not only is a Host destroyed but the remnants are then mixed with another substance.

In the novel, when #4 and #5 occur Van Helsing is said to finely crumble up a piece of the Host. If he crumbles it very finely then it will cease to appear to be pieces of bread and the Real Presence will cease, which would partially ameliorate the situation. (I.e., it would be worse to scatter or embed species that still held the Real Presence in something than to scatter or embed species that no longer held it). Unfortunately, I don’t think Stoker knows this, and I think we are meant to understand that Van Helsing believes that the Real Presence continues in these cases.

Ultimately, it’s up to God the ways in which he chooses to authorize man to handle the Eucharist, and I can’t gainsay what he might sovereignly choose to do in another world.

What I CAN say is that all of this (particularly the latter numbers) is PROFOUNDLY offensive to pious sensibilities and that it is a LITERARY FLAW in the novel for Bram Stoker to have handled things the way he did.

I suspect (as I’ll explain in a future post) that he simply didn’t understand the theological implications of significant parts of what he was writing, and so this may to some extent be a case of "Forgive them, for they know not what they do."

Quebec Is *SO* Going To Hell

Retailles_d_hosties_2Just when you thought that Quebec couldn’t get any more evil.

Turns out that there is a product being marketed up there that sells what are effectively unconsecrated hosts as SNACK CHIPS.

I am NOT kidding.

The product is known as "Retailles D’Hosties" (lit., "recut hosts")–A.K.A. in English as "Host Pieces."

"My son can eat a whole bag while he’s watching TV," Paul Saumure, a manager at another IGA store, said of his 22-year-old. "He’s had more of them outside of church than he ever did inside one."

These things have apparently been around for a while, but they are now experiencing a resurgence due to–of all things–health food concerns.

Being made from just wheat and water, they have no added salt or fat.

And if you sacrilegiously eat bags and bags of pure flour out of healthfood concerns then you deserve the diabetes that you’ll get.

Lest you think this is just a sick joke,

HERE’S AN ARTICLE ON IT FROM THE TORONTO GLOBE & MAIL.

HERE’S INFO ON ONE OF THE MANUFACTURERS.

Oh, and there’s a very interesting number of hits you get on Google if you search for "retailles d’hosties":
Retailles_d_hosties

(CHT to the reader who e-mailed.)

NYT On SDG

GET THE STORY.

NOTES:

  • Unfortunatley, SDG only gets a brief mention in the story, but it’s nice to see him getting recognition from the MSM. (He’s also been cited by Ebert.)
  • Love the NYTnoid headline: "New Cultural Approach for Conservative Christians: Reviews, Not Protests"–as if protesting movies was the only approach conservative Christians have had up till now, never having reviewed and thoughtfully interacted with and critiqued culture up to now.
  • One of the other review services mentioned in the article–MovieGuide–is an exceptionally disingenuous entity. In a MASSIVE AND UNPROFESSIONAL CONFLICT OF INTEREST the people involved act as a publicity agency for certain movies–which have a suspicious tendency to end up with positive reviews. They also have a knee-jerk Fundamentalist approach to films whose content they don’t like (i.e., "It’s morally objecitonable so it must be artistically lousy, too"). SEE HERE FOR MORE INFO.

Illicit Vs. Valid

A reader writes:

Merry Christmas Mr. Akin, I was curious if you could take a moment to
comment on the following:

http://www.chron.com/disp/story.mpl/ap/nation/3547357.html

I am particularly interested in the "valid" and "illicit" part
associated with this Mass.

First a note for those who may not read further: "Licit" means "in conformity with the law," while "illicit" means "not in conformity with the law." A celebration of the liturgy is in conformity with the law (licit) if those celebrating it don’t break any of the Church’s laws in their celebration. It is illicit if they do break such laws.

"Valid," by contrast," means (effectively) "real," while "invalid" means "unreal."

This is important in the context of liturgy, for example, because even an unlawful (illicit) celebration of the Mass may have at its heart a valid (real) consecration of the Eucharist.

From an ultimate perspective, the FIRST question one should ask about a celebration of the Eucharist is whether it is valid (i.e., does Jesus really become present?).

The SECOND question is whether–even if Jesus does really become present–the celebration is lawful (licit) according to the Church.

Based on the first two questions, one needs to ask a THIRD question: Is attending this Mass sinful or non-sinful? If the consecration is INVALID or the Mass as a whole is ILLICIT then the answer is presumably sinful.

HERE’S MORE ON THE SITUATION IN ST. LOUIS FROM ST. LOUIS NATIVE, DR. EDWARD PETERS.

(BTW, special congratulations to Ed for finally joining the 21st century and getting REAL [valid] permalinks for his blog, which will DRAMATICALLY enhance its effectiveness. His new blog design is quite cool, too! Check it out!)