A reader writes:
As a person scheduled to start RCIA courses this Fall with my family, I approach this issue with fresh new eyes. I’m interested in the Catholic perspective on the below issues, and there seems to be a wide variety of opinions on the topic. We’ve got a pretty interesting thread going in your "What Is Happening In The Middle East" article
I’ll say! The thing is almost a month old and still going strong. It’s got almost 500 comments at the time of this writing, which as far as I know makes it the single most-commented on post we’ve ever had here at JA.O.
…a lot of interesting theories, but great need for sound scholarship in a few different areas…namely:
1. Is the redemptive process for Jewish folks the same as it is for Gentile folks? (both pre and post return of the Messiah); and
St. Paul is quite clear that the basis for salvation is the same for both Jews and Gentiles and that it is Jesus Christ. All are bound to accept the Christian faith for salvation. To culpably refuse to do so would be to reject salvation on the terms that God offers it. This is not to say that God cannot save those who inculpably do not accept the Christian faith. He can. It will still be Christ who saves them, even if they didn’t realize this in the present life.
The New Testament furher makes it clear that the covenants God established with Israel prior to the time of Christ–while they are of great value and enduring significance–do not provide salvation. Therefore it is not possible to hold that Jewish people are saved on the basis of covenants established prior to Christ.
The Old Law thus in some ways functioned for Israel the way that canon law tends to today. It was a body of legislation that made a particular application of the eternal law to a particular people living in a particular time and place–and failing to observe its grave provisions could be a mortal sin just as much as failing to observe grave obligations under canon law can be–but the Mosaic Law’s purpose–like canon law–was never to provide salvation itself:
"We ourselves, who are Jews by birth and not Gentile sinners, yet who know that a man is not justified by works of the law but through faith in Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Christ Jesus, in order to be justified by faith in Christ, and not by works of the law, because by works of the law shall no one be justified" (Gal. 2:15-16).
"If a Law had been given which could make alive, then righteousness would indeed be by the Law. But the scripture consigned all things to sin, that what was promised to faith in Jesus Christ might be given to those who believe" (Gal. 3:21-22).
"For it is impossible that the blood of bulls and goats should take away sins. Consequently, when Christ came into the world, he said, "Sacrifices and
offerings thou hast not desired, but a body hast thou prepared for me; in burnt offerings and sin offerings thou hast taken no pleasure. Then I said, `Lo, I have come to do thy will, O God,’ as it is written of me in the roll of the book" (Heb. 10:4-7).
Because the Mosaic Law never provided salvation (it dealt with ceremonial and temporal consequences of sin; see my book The Salvation Controversy for more on that), it cannot so provide salvation to anyone today.
This means that the basis for salvation for all human beings today is the same as it always has been: Jesus Christ. It’s just a question of how much knowledge a person in a particular situation has regarding God’s plan and whether he accepts it according to the understanding he has. If a person knows that God’s plan centers of Jesus of Nazareth then he is responsible for accepting that. If he does not (as is the case with many people–including Jewish individuals–in today’s world and as was the case with everybody prior to the First Coming of Christ) then he is responsible for accepting as much of God’s plan as he understands.
Thus the New Testament makes it clear that acceptance of the Christian faith is mandatory for both Jews and Gentiles today, and this will not change after the Second Coming. That will simply make it obvious to all that God’s plan centered on Jesus of Nazareth.
Just to clear away another possible misunderstanding: Having heard about Jesus is not sufficient to make one culpable for rejecting him. It is quite possible for a person to hear about Jesus without being presented with sufficient evidence for his role in God’s plan so that one is not under a moral obligation to accept this message. This is the same as it is with any truth claim: The mere fact that we hear it does not automatically mean we are responsible for believing it. We have to be given sufficient evidence for its truth before we are morally bound to accept it. (There are a few exceptions to this–in the case of statements that are self-validating like "You think, therefore you are [maybe]"–but even then one must think through the statement sufficiently well to realize that it is self-validating. Hearing it isn’t enough.)
2. Are the Jews still God’s chosen people (post-new covenant), with any right and entitlement to the land of Israel? (either exclusive of or with Gentile rights, etc.)
This is actually two questions.
First, yes, the Jewish people is still elect of God. St. Paul makes this very clear, particularly in Romans 11. Note in particular St. Paul’s statements about unbelieving Jews still being beloved on account of the Patriarchs and how they can and one day will be grafted back into "their own" tree (in contrast to us Gentiles, who have been grafted into it contrary to our nature since it is not "our" tree). This presupposes a continuing role for the Jewish people in God’s plan, and Paul could not be more explicit than saying that "as regards election they are beloved for the sake of their forefathers. For the gifts and the call of God are irrevocable" (Heb. 11:28-29).
The Jewish people is thus still elect, whether or not a particular Jewish individual has accepted the Christian faith.
The Church also acknowledges a continuing role for the Jewish people that is linked to the Second Coming of Christ:
CCC 674 The glorious Messiah’s coming is suspended at every moment of history until his recognition by "all Israel", for "a hardening has come upon part of Israel" in their "unbelief" toward Jesus. St. Peter says to the Jews of Jerusalem after Pentecost: "Repent therefore, and turn again, that your sins may be blotted out, that times of refreshing may come from the presence of the Lord, and that he may send the Christ appointed for you, Jesus, whom heaven must receive until the time for establishing all that God spoke by the mouth of his holy prophets from of old." St. Paul echoes him: "For if their rejection means the reconciliation of the world, what will their acceptance mean but life from the dead?" The "full inclusion" of the Jews in the Messiah’s salvation, in the wake of "the full number of the Gentiles", will enable the People of God to achieve "the measure of the stature of the fullness of Christ", in which "God may be all in all".
As to the second question, whether the Jewish people still have a special title to the Holy Land, this is a theologically open question. Scripture certainly uses emphatic language about it being an everlasting possession of theirs, but Scriptural statements of this nature often have to be understood with some nuance and cannot always be applied in a straightforward fashion.
I’d also note that whether there is some kind of continuing title to the land is a separate question than whether the present state of Israel is a legitimate bearer of that title, which is a separate question than whether the present state of Israel was created in a moral means, which is a separate question than whether the present state of Israel–now created–has a right to defend itself vigorously. So there’s a bunch of separate questions there.





