HIGHLIGHTS:
- At the conclusion of an exorcism, is the
expulsion of the demon apparent? Are there exorcists present in every diocese? - Did Bishop Raymond Burke recently assert that all pro-abortion politicians should refrain of Communion? Why single out abortion as a Communion disqualification?
- Countering the Protestant notion of salvation by "faith
alone." - Where in scripture would one find the distinction between mortal and venial sins?
- Can one prove the truth of transubstantiation over consubstantiation?
- Can priests in the Society of St. Pius X validly celebrate the sacrament of penance? How about those in the Charismatic Episcopal Church?
- How many precepts of the Church are there? Can they change?
Who determines them? - Is confession required before Communion if one misses Mass? What are valid reasons for missing Mass?
- Must there be "full" knowledge or consent for a sin to be
mortal? What if an individual knows that an act constitutes grave matter in the eyes of the Church yet chooses to ignore that fact? - What Christian sects are custodians of the Church of the Holy Sepulchre? Would the marriage of a Catholic in a Greek Orthodox church be valid?
- What is the minimum age for an extraordinary minister of Holy
Communion? - Is Catholic Family News a trustworthy publication?
- What are the "Lost Gospels"?
- To which scripture passages do proponents of the Rapture appeal? How should those same passages be properly interpreted?
the download link is wrong- here is the right link: ftp://radio.catholic.com/calive/2004/ca040119.rm
Thanks! Problem fixed!
Jimmy, first, thanks for fixing that.
I was listening to the program, and I have a further question in response to your answer to this question “Can priests in the Society of St. Pius X validly celebrate the sacrament of penance? How about those in the Charismatic Episcopal Church?”
Considering, as you said, the fact that the SSPX priests would not have faculties to absolve sins from the Bishop, wouldn’t “Ecclisia Supplet” (spelling?) kick in, so long as they were unaware of the sacramental defect?
Futher, if it did kick in, they would be absolved because the “Church provides the grace”, but it would not be considered a valid sacrament anyway right? even though it had the sacramental effect?
Thanks in advance.
Jason
Jimmy, did you see my question?
Answer Friday in the main blog section.
awesome, thanks!
For which definition of “through faith”?
If the one Trent used, then of course, but if the one that the Protestants actually use, then actually, I think we are on the same page, using words differently.