A reader writes:
Jimmy – in reflecting on the recent Plenary Indulgence given by the Holy Father this year, and in reading some Catholic source books on Indulgences, there are a few points on which I’m unclear. I’m wondering if you can help me.1. An Indulgence for the living can only be had by the one performing the indulgenced act. In other words, I can’t ask for an Indulgence, Plenary or Partial, for another living person (other than myself). True?
TRUE.
2. An Indulgence, being a species of sacramental, works "ex opere operantis"; in other words, its efficacy is dependent on the subjective disposition of the one performing the indulgenced act(s). Is this true?
TRUE. AS THE CHURCH’S LAW IS PRESENTLY CONFIGURED, INDULGENCES WORK EX OPERE OPERANTIS, THOUGH IT ISN’T 100% CLEAR THAT THEY ARE TO BE CLASSIFIED AS SACRAMENTALS. THEY APPEAR TO FIT THE GENERAL DEFINITION OF SACRAMENTALS, BUT ARE NOT LISTED AS EXAMPLES OF SACRAMENTALS HERE.
2.a Corollary question: do all voluntary acts of satisfaction, as ways of obtaining grace, work "ex opere operantis"? If so, then penance assigned in the Sacrament of Confession (and performed) must work "ex opere operato", i.e., without its efficacy relying on the penitent’s subjective disposition. True?
VOLUNTARY ACTS OF SATISFACTION DO WORK EX OPERE OPERANTIS.
HOWEVER, THE PENANCE ASSIGNED IN CONFESSION IS NOT VOLUNTARY. IT IS REQUIRED BY THE SACRAMENT, WHICH WORKS EX OPERE OPERATO. YOU ARE ABSOLVED EX OPERE OPERATO AS LONG AS YOU INTEND, AT THE TIME OF THE SACRAMENT, TO DO THE PENANCE. YOU ARE THEN GRAVELY OBLIGATED TO PERFORM IT, BUT YOU ARE ALREADY ABSOLVED.
3. An Indulgence is an act of the power of jurisdiction of a prelate (Pope, Bishop), not of the power of orders. But since the Church has no jurisdiction over the dead, we cannot be sure that an Indulgence for the dead is efficacious. Is this true?
TRUE, BUT THIS IS STATED A LITTLE STRONGLY. SINCE THE DEPARTED ARE NOT SUBJECT TO THE JURISDICTION OF THE EARTHLY CHURCH, WE CANNOT HAVE CERTAIN KNOWLEDGE THAT THEY ARE APPLIED TO THEM IN PARTICULAR CASES, BUT WE MAY HAVE REASONABLE CONFIDENCE THAT GOD HEARS AND RESPONDS AFFIRMATIVELY TO THE EARTHLY CHURCH’S REQUESTS IN THIS REGARD.
Speaking of indulgences, I’ve come across a supposed copy of an indulgence by Tetzel (the guy who ticked off Luther) recently and was wondering if it would have been valid. All spelling errors are mine:
May our Lord, Jesus Christ, have mercy upon thee and absolve thee by the merits of his most holy passion. And I, by his authority, that of his Apostles Peter and Paul, and of the most holy pope granted and committed to me in these parts, do absolve thee, first from all ecclesiastical censures, in whatever manner they have been incurred; and then from all the sins, transgressinos, and excesses, how enourmous soever they may be, even for such as are reserved for the cognizance of the holy see; and as far as the keys of the holy church extend, I remit to thee all the punishment which thou deservest in purgatory on their account; and I restore thee to the holy sacraments of the church, to the unity of the faithful, and to that innocence and purity which thou possessedst at baptism; so that when thou diest, the gates of punishment shall be shut, and the gates of the paradise of delight shall be opned; and if thou shalt not die at present, this grace shall remain in full force when thou art at the point of death. In the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Ghost.
Paul.
IMO any indulgence is granted and retained on the condition that the recipient is then, and remains in a state of grace. As in our condition, a plenary indulgence obtained through perfect contrition at the Sacrament of Penance (Reconciliation) is negated by the commission of serious sin, which requires that we again attend confession to return to a state of grace.
So in Matin Luther’s case, if the indulgence was granted and “effective”, he would needed to have been in a state of grace, and stayed that way for the indulgence to stay in effect.And in view of his criticism of the granting of indulgences, that is dubious.
I read that you must also be clear of VENIAL sin. Seems to me that this makes obtaining an indulgence much harder, unless you use holy water immediately before performing the last part, and act on one of the options that require you to be in a Church–such as the ones that involve saying rosary in the presence of either the Lord in tabernacle or at Adoration.
Any comments?