Times Religion Correspondent Can Barely Keep From Swearing

RuthgledhillThe religion correspondent for the Time of London–Ruth "I’m Too Dangerously Unqualified To Keep My Job" Gledhill–has given vent to her spleen again in another tantrum disguised as a news story.

Be warned! She has an excessively large spleen!

That spleen is on display in previous thinly-disguised crypto-tantrums such as THIS and THIS, as well as in comments recorded HERE.

It’s no surprise, then, that Gledhill would try to gin up more controversy with a story such as her new one, which she or her editor eggregiously and INACCURATELY titled

Catholic Church no longer swears by truth of the Bible

With a provocation like that, I’ve received links to the story from loads of folks looking for comment.

So let’s get to it.

Continue reading “Times Religion Correspondent Can Barely Keep From Swearing”

New Public School Bible Textbook?

A reader writes:

Jimmy –

I know you get quite a bit of e-mail during the day but I found this article & thought you’d find it interesting.  It’s about a new book called  "The Bible and Its Influence" that’s intended to teach how literature, society, politics, etc, have been influenced by the Bible & it’s meant to be used in public schools.  I found it a very interesting piece.

So did I.

GET THE STORY.

Do Catholics Read The Bible?

Yes, but not enough of them, say some Catholic biblical experts. Too many Catholics apparently have not gotten the word that the Bible is not the sole domain of the clergy:

"While it may be a best-seller, the Bible still is not regularly read, nor has it become an integral part of many Catholics’ lives, said a panel of biblical experts.

"’Unfortunately, it must be said, there is still little Bible in the lives of the faithful,’ said Italian Bishop Vincenzo Paglia, president of the Catholic Bible Federation.

"Recent research conducted in Italy, Spain and France found that many Catholics consider the sacred Scriptures as something ‘reserved for the clergy’ rather than as an accessible resource for them to draw upon for truth and inspiration in their own lives, he said.

"Bishop Paglia, together with a number of biblical experts, spoke at a Vatican press conference Sept. 8 to present an upcoming international congress commemorating the 40th anniversary of Dei Verbum, the Second Vatican Council document on Scripture and divine revelation."

GET THE STORY.

On the bright side, Bishop Paglia notes that "It is by listening to the word of God, in fact, that the believer discovers himself to be a disciple and even an apostle, that is, an evangelizer" (emphasis added). Rather than distributing Bibles to Catholics, a la the Gideon Society (a plan that the bishop notes is problematic), a better approach might be to get Catholics back to Mass where they can hear the word of God every Sunday — or better yet, every day.

The Virgin Birth & Egyptian Mythology

The reader with biblical questions concludes:

3. Okay, this one’s from the New Testament:  someone argued that the
notion of Mary being a virgin comes from an Egyptian belief in a virgin
mother & child ("Isis/Osiris").

Okay, this one is much easier than the former two.

First, in the accounts from Egyptian mythology that I am familiar with, there is no virgin birth here. In these accounts, Osiris was the son of the earth god Geb and the sky goddess Nut. (No virgin birth there.) Then he married Isis. Then he got kilt by Set. Then he got reanimated. Then he (or part of him) conceived a son with Isis. (No virgin birth there, either.) That son was Horus.

So I’m not seeing a virgin birth.

That being said, Egyptian mythology is a mess. I mean, it’s a horrible jumble of conflicting accounts.

I mean, no matter what contradictions skeptics charge the Bible with (which can be explained), they PALE in comparison with those of Egyptian mythology, which is a huge, disorganized, shifting chaos. (And I say that as one who has an interest in Egyptian mythology.)

That being the case, I can’t rule out that there is, somewhere, an Egyptian text that contains some kind of virgin birth in it.

If so, what does that prove?

Not much.

It certainly doesn’t prove that the Virgin Birth in the Bible "came from" the Egyptian counterpart. That would be the post hoc, ergo propter hoc ("After this, therefore because of this") fallacy.

Even if there were already Egyptians who believe in some kind of virgin birth for one of their deities, why does that explain the birth of Jesus? Couldn’t the explaination be this:

  • Suppose that you are the true God and that you have a Son.
  • You send your Son to be born among men, and you want men to understand that he is your Son.
  • You could choose to have him be born of a human mother via a human father, but if you do that you know that he will be faced with the challenge, "How can you be God’s Son when your father is obviously Joseph the carpenter"?
  • Therefore, you choose to have your Son be born without a human father so that the effect of this objection is blunted and you have done a miracle that–at least for those who accept the miracle–demonstrates that your Son is none other than your Son.

In history, Jesus did face the question "Is this not Joseph’s son?" but at least there was the miracle on record for those who would accept it.

For those who do accept the miracle, it’s a certain proof of Jesus’ identity. How could there be any clearer sign that a man is God’s Son than that he be born of a Virgin by a miracle involving no human father?

It might not convince those who won’t have faith in your son (who can always posit a natural explanation for Jesus being born), but for those who accept the miracle, it is a clear sign of who your Son really is.

The Virgin Birth & Egyptian Mythology

The reader with biblical questions concludes:

3. Okay, this one’s from the New Testament:  someone argued that the

notion of Mary being a virgin comes from an Egyptian belief in a virgin

mother & child ("Isis/Osiris").

Okay, this one is much easier than the former two.

First, in the accounts from Egyptian mythology that I am familiar with, there is no virgin birth here. In these accounts, Osiris was the son of the earth god Geb and the sky goddess Nut. (No virgin birth there.) Then he married Isis. Then he got kilt by Set. Then he got reanimated. Then he (or part of him) conceived a son with Isis. (No virgin birth there, either.) That son was Horus.

So I’m not seeing a virgin birth.

That being said, Egyptian mythology is a mess. I mean, it’s a horrible jumble of conflicting accounts.

I mean, no matter what contradictions skeptics charge the Bible with (which can be explained), they PALE in comparison with those of Egyptian mythology, which is a huge, disorganized, shifting chaos. (And I say that as one who has an interest in Egyptian mythology.)

That being the case, I can’t rule out that there is, somewhere, an Egyptian text that contains some kind of virgin birth in it.

If so, what does that prove?

Not much.

It certainly doesn’t prove that the Virgin Birth in the Bible "came from" the Egyptian counterpart. That would be the post hoc, ergo propter hoc ("After this, therefore because of this") fallacy.

Even if there were already Egyptians who believe in some kind of virgin birth for one of their deities, why does that explain the birth of Jesus? Couldn’t the explaination be this:

  • Suppose that you are the true God and that you have a Son.
  • You send your Son to be born among men, and you want men to understand that he is your Son.
  • You could choose to have him be born of a human mother via a human father, but if you do that you know that he will be faced with the challenge, "How can you be God’s Son when your father is obviously Joseph the carpenter"?
  • Therefore, you choose to have your Son be born without a human father so that the effect of this objection is blunted and you have done a miracle that–at least for those who accept the miracle–demonstrates that your Son is none other than your Son.

In history, Jesus did face the question "Is this not Joseph’s son?" but at least there was the miracle on record for those who would accept it.

For those who do accept the miracle, it’s a certain proof of Jesus’ identity. How could there be any clearer sign that a man is God’s Son than that he be born of a Virgin by a miracle involving no human father?

It might not convince those who won’t have faith in your son (who can always posit a natural explanation for Jesus being born), but for those who accept the miracle, it is a clear sign of who your Son really is.

Blunt Commands In The Old Testament

The reader with biblical questions continues:

2. What about God giving commands that seem to our post 9/11
consciousness to be more like those given by Osama Bin Laden:  i.e., I
think the prophet Samuel tells Sauls to kill all the women and children
of some town that they are fighting.

The
Church has not yet given guidance as explicit on this question as it
has on the previous one, but it has already recognized that there is a
divine pedagogy in which the children of Israel were led over the
course of time into a fuller and fuller understanding of God’s will.
Thus polygamy was tolerated under the Old Law but is not under the New.
Similarly, divorce was regulated at the time of Moses, strongly
discouraged during the time of the Prophets, and remarriage following
divorce was forbidden under the New Covenant.

In dealing with the commands in the Old Testament that seem
particularly barbarous, the logical approach would involve taking
account of this pedagogy and recognizing that God was gradually leading
his people into a fuller understanding of his will. In earlier times
(when these occurred), he was dealing with a people that had not yet
been fully catechized in his will and who were still heavily influenced
by the warfare practices of the cultures around them (which included
genocide). He was thus dealing with a "blunt instrument" in
moral-cultural terms and this may play a role in the bluntness with
which some of these commands are expressed.

This bluntness undoubtedly plays a role in these commands, but one may see the bluntness playing out in different ways:

1) On one interpretation, God himself may have decided that the
people of Israel were not yet at a stage of moral-religious development
in which they could approach the question in the nuanced manner that we
today can (and must!) approach it. Therefore, he gave them blunt
orders, these being the only kind they could effectively implement.

2) On another interpretation, one might say that God himself gave
more nuanced orders but the consciousness of the prophet or the
biblical author was not sufficiently nuanced to be able to articulate
these orders in a nuanced form. Whatever nuanced motions of grace the
prophet or author may have received, they ended up expressing
themselves in a blunt fashion due to the intellectual condition of
their day.

3) On a third interpretation–which grants the most nuance–one
might say that these accounts are written after the fact and the blunt
commands were not given in the original historical circumstances but
instead were written to symbolically express the unconditional break
with paganism that the children of God must make.

Each of these interpretations has challenges to face. The first one
is hard to square with the absolute goodness of God. If he is
absolutely good, why should he give such blunt commands? Against this
it might be argued that God is the author of life and so it is up to
him when and how one dies. All life is a gift, and if God chooses to
give some people less of it than others and to have them die in
particular ways, that is his choice.

The second interpretation is hard to square with God’s absolute
truthfulness. Since very assertion of sacred Scripture is an assertion
of the Holy Spirit, how could God allow such blunt commands to find
their way into the sacred text? In the case of the historical reporting
of what prophets said, this could be explained. If Samuel issued blunt
commands then the sacred author might accurately report this without
endorsing these commands (at least in an unqualified sense). However,
the same kinds of commands appear in non-historical texts, such as the
books of Moses, where this explanation is not as clearly available.

The third interpretation has the challenge that it is not obvious
(to us) that this is what is going on in the sacred text. However,
despite the fact that the ancients were at a lower level of moral
pedagogy than we are, they were at a remarkably high level of literary
development and thus capable of recognizing the non-literal nature of
many texts that we today tend to take literally (e.g., Genesis 1). This
being the case, the ancient audience reading the biblical text might be
much more able to recognize the symbolic nature of these commands and
that they were not necessarily given in the original historical
circumstances.

Not all ancient readers might have recognized this, but God has
shown that he is willing to write in a way that not all people will
understand.

Further, one might point out that few ancient readers at the time
the texts were written would be in a position to commit wholesale
genocide but all were in a position in which they needed to understand
the decisiveness of the break with paganism that God required.

As indicated, each of these views have challenges to face, though I
suspect that the third interpretation would be the preferred one of the
current pope and most current members of the Magisterium.

Adam, Noah, And Science

A reader offers three questions about the Bible that we will treat in three different posts today. Here we deal with the first one.

He writes:

I have follwed your blog for the past couple of months with interest.  Recently, it occurred to me that you might be able to steer me in the right direction on a few questions about the Catholic faith.  You should know that I graduated from one of those hyper-orthodox (my term) colleges (Christendom), so I guess I already have a few good theology courses under my belt.  Oh yeah, I got a doctorate in philosophy as well.  But I don’t know diddly about the Old Testament, and at least a couple of things going on there bug me.  They are listed in #1 & 2 below:

1. What if science offers evidence that seems to disprove the story of Noah and/or Adam ?

The Church teaches that the narrative of Gen 1-3 reflects real historical events but also is written in a stylized manner that incorporates symbolic elements. Thus the Catechism of the Catholic Church states:

337 God himself created the visible world in all its richness, diversity
and order. Scripture presents the work of the Creator symbolically as a
succession of six days of divine "work", concluded by the "rest" of the
seventh day.

390
The account of the fall in Genesis 3 uses figurative language, but affirms a
primeval event, a deed that took place at the beginning of the history of
man. Revelation gives us the certainty of faith that the whole of
human history is marked by the original fault freely committed by our first
parents.

The Church does not have a similar contemporary statement on the historicity of the Flood narrative (Gen. 6-9), but it would likely apply the same considerations to it that are applied above to Genesis 1 and 3. In other words: The account should be taken to reflect actual history but to be written in a stylized manner that may incorporates symbolic elements.

With this approach there is considerable latitude of how to understand the accounts. They might contain many historical elements and few symbolic ones or they might be primarily a literary construct built around a core historic nucleus. It is up to the individual interpreter to decide.

In making that determination–to the extent that making a precise determination is necessary–the interpreter would need to draw on all the resources available to him, including the text itself, knowledge of the biblical languages, knowledge of biblical modes of writing (including comparisons to other, non-biblical ancient texts), the understanding of the Church Fathers, subsequent interpreters, and science.

To the extent that science offers evidence that particular elements of the early Genesis narratives were are non-historical, that pushes the interpreter in the direction of viewing more elements of these narratives as symbolic. The Church would hold that some kind of historical nucleus remains, but that is consistent with saying that large amounts of the text are symbolic.

Now, short of the invention of a time machine or at least a form of remote temporal viewing, I know of no evidence that science could offer that would outright proof that particular elements in these narratives are symbolic, but as the amount of scientific evidence offered increases, the more reasonable it is for an interpreter to view particular elements as symbolic.

Hypothetically (and I am not advocating this), an interpreter might conclude that Adam and Eve represent the early human community as a whole. Pius XII strongly discouraged this interpretation in his enecyclical Humani Generis, but did not altogether preclude the possibility that the Magisterium might be open to it in the future, and some members of the Magisterium (such as the German bishops’ conference) have been explicitly open to it in recent years.

Simiarly, one might conclude that the Flood narrative does not deal with a global flood and that Genesis’ language saying that the flood covered the whole of the land is meant more restrictively–e.g., the land with which Scripture is concerned–though there certainly were numerous and at times catastrophic floods in this region and science cannot exclude the idea that one of these serves as the historical nucleus around which the biblical Flood narrative is built.

Male Angel Names?

A reader writes:

Listening to one of the Catholic Answers Q&A sessions, you mention no gender in angels.  Would the fact that Angels are named, Michael, Raphael, Gabriel be named for our sake to show male strength in earlier times?

Okay, I’m not sure I understand the question, but if I read you correctly, you are wondering whether the fact that angels in the Bible have masculine names means that God is accomodating their names to ancient Hebrew culture, which identified strength with masculinity (angels being stronger than us).

Maybe.

To tell you the truth, I’ve never dug into Hebrew naming practices thoroughly enough to know whether the angels in question have names that sound distinctly male in Hebrew. Hypothetically, they could be bi-gendered names, like "Chris" or "Terry" or "Kelly" are in English, which can be either male or female. My suspicion, though, is that you’re correct and that these are male-sounding names in Hebrew.

However that may be, the angels are certainly pictured as males, and this is no doubt an accomodation to Hebrew culture in some way. It could be the strength of the angels that is the determining factor (Michael and Gabriel are depicted as engaging in heavenly warfare–a male occupation), or it could be something else. Raphael serves as a travelling companion for Tobias, and a woman would not be a fit travelling companion for an unmarried male in their day.

On the other hand, it seems that whenever angels are mentioned they are depicted (if they are depicted as humans) as male, even when they aren’t named. It may be that strength is the cause, or it might be the role they play: They’re God’s messengers. That’s what the word "angel" means in the biblical languages: messenger. Since kings used male messengers in that day, this could be why.

It also could be that they are in some way priestly, serving in the heavenly Temple, and in ancient Israel only males served as officials in the Temple.

So . . . it’s kinda hard to say for sure. My guess would be the messenger idea, though.

"No One Has Ascended To Heaven"

A reader writes:

On the Old testament i read that Elijah was ascend unto Heaven and on the Epistle of Jude 1:9 indicates that Moses was ascend too.

But Jesus said that he no one was came into heaven except himself which came from Heaven…

I’m confused enough with that, could you explain.

Off the top of my head, I can see three possibilities here:

  1. Elijah and others didn’t ascend to the same heaven that Jesus came from but to somewhere else.
  2. Jesus doesn’t mean for his comment to apply to all humans of all periods, so it allows for at least a handful of exceptions like Enoch and Elijah.
  3. Jesus is talking about his own particular kind of ascension, which is different than those of others. For example, he ascends under his own power (in cooperation with the Father and the Spirit), but others could not ascend under their own power. They had to be carried up to heaven by divine power, so they were "assumed" rather than "ascended."
  4. Jesus is talking about people who would be in a position to tell Nicodemus (who he is talking to) about heavenly things. He thus is thinking of people who are now on earth that could tell Nicodemus about heavenly things. Since Enoch, Elijah, and Moses were not at that moment on earth, they could not tell Nicodemus about heaven.

Option #1 does not seem that likely to me because Scripture says they went to heaven (Hebrew, shmayim) and because prior to the Incarnation Jesus did not have a physical form and so, as the Second Person of the Trinity, it would be equally present in all heavenly realms since he is everywhere. He is still everywhere in his divinity, of course, but at least today he has a body, so if he is in "third heaven" (let’s say) then we could say that he’s present everywhere but also present in third heaven in a special way since he is present there both in his divinity and his humanity.  But before the Incarnation he had no humanity and so it would not be as easy to say he was specially in one heaven rather than another.

Option #2 is possible since Jesus may have been speaking of a restricted group of people, such as those of his current day. Of those living in the third century when Jesus said this (John 3:13), none of them had ascended to heaven. Jesus thus might have meant, "Of everyone you have ever met and of everyone alive today, none of them has ascended to heaven."

Option #3 is also possible, though I think it’s less likely than #2 or #4.

Option #4 seems more probable to me. If you look at verse 12, Jesus sets up his statement by saying:

12 If I have told you earthly things and you do   not believe, how can you believe if I tell you heavenly things?
13:
No one has ascended into heaven but he who descended   from heaven, the Son of man.

That question "how can you believe if I tell you heavenly things?" sets up "No one has ascended to heaven." If we try to relate these two, the logic might be: "How could you believe if I told you about heavenly things? Nobody here on earth right now has ascended to heaven, therefore you’d have no way of knowing about heaven and whether what I was saying was true. If you don’t trust me when I tell you about earthly things, therefore, why would you believe if I told you about heavenly things? It’s not like you could consult Shlomo down the street and ask him what he saw last time he was in heaven and thus confirm what I said. So far, I’m the only one who’s come from there and only I can tell you about it. You’ll either have to trust me or not."

The fact that Elijah and some others had gone there wouldn’t affect this logic since they didn’t come back to tell people what they saw.

It is understandable that you’d be confused, though. This is a confusing passage. Taken on its face, it makes it sound like Jesus has already ascended to heaven, when we know from elsewhere in the New Testament that he hasn’t.

Hope this helps!

“No One Has Ascended To Heaven”

A reader writes:

On the Old testament i read that Elijah was ascend unto Heaven and on the Epistle of Jude 1:9 indicates that Moses was ascend too.
But Jesus said that he no one was came into heaven except himself which came from Heaven…

I’m confused enough with that, could you explain.

Off the top of my head, I can see three possibilities here:

  1. Elijah and others didn’t ascend to the same heaven that Jesus came from but to somewhere else.
  2. Jesus doesn’t mean for his comment to apply to all humans of all periods, so it allows for at least a handful of exceptions like Enoch and Elijah.
  3. Jesus is talking about his own particular kind of ascension, which is different than those of others. For example, he ascends under his own power (in cooperation with the Father and the Spirit), but others could not ascend under their own power. They had to be carried up to heaven by divine power, so they were "assumed" rather than "ascended."
  4. Jesus is talking about people who would be in a position to tell Nicodemus (who he is talking to) about heavenly things. He thus is thinking of people who are now on earth that could tell Nicodemus about heavenly things. Since Enoch, Elijah, and Moses were not at that moment on earth, they could not tell Nicodemus about heaven.

Option #1 does not seem that likely to me because Scripture says they went to heaven (Hebrew, shmayim) and because prior to the Incarnation Jesus did not have a physical form and so, as the Second Person of the Trinity, it would be equally present in all heavenly realms since he is everywhere. He is still everywhere in his divinity, of course, but at least today he has a body, so if he is in "third heaven" (let’s say) then we could say that he’s present everywhere but also present in third heaven in a special way since he is present there both in his divinity and his humanity.  But before the Incarnation he had no humanity and so it would not be as easy to say he was specially in one heaven rather than another.

Option #2 is possible since Jesus may have been speaking of a restricted group of people, such as those of his current day. Of those living in the third century when Jesus said this (John 3:13), none of them had ascended to heaven. Jesus thus might have meant, "Of everyone you have ever met and of everyone alive today, none of them has ascended to heaven."

Option #3 is also possible, though I think it’s less likely than #2 or #4.

Option #4 seems more probable to me. If you look at verse 12, Jesus sets up his statement by saying:

12 If I have told you earthly things and you do   not believe, how can you believe if I tell you heavenly things?
13:
No one has ascended into heaven but he who descended   from heaven, the Son of man.

That question "how can you believe if I tell you heavenly things?" sets up "No one has ascended to heaven." If we try to relate these two, the logic might be: "How could you believe if I told you about heavenly things? Nobody here on earth right now has ascended to heaven, therefore you’d have no way of knowing about heaven and whether what I was saying was true. If you don’t trust me when I tell you about earthly things, therefore, why would you believe if I told you about heavenly things? It’s not like you could consult Shlomo down the street and ask him what he saw last time he was in heaven and thus confirm what I said. So far, I’m the only one who’s come from there and only I can tell you about it. You’ll either have to trust me or not."

The fact that Elijah and some others had gone there wouldn’t affect this logic since they didn’t come back to tell people what they saw.

It is understandable that you’d be confused, though. This is a confusing passage. Taken on its face, it makes it sound like Jesus has already ascended to heaven, when we know from elsewhere in the New Testament that he hasn’t.

Hope this helps!