A reader writes:
Here is a link to a news article that I recently came across. Is there such evidence that will unequivically prove this? (not that I’m doubting)
<extreme exertion of self-control>MUST . . . RESTRAIN . . . SELF . . . FROM . . . MAKING . . . FLIPPANT . . . COMMENT . . . ABOUT . . . ITALIAN . . . LEGAL . . . SYSTEM!</extreme exertion of self-control>
There is certainly evidence that would prove the existence of Jesus of Nazareth beyond reasonable doubt, which is the standard that (American) courts use in the toughest cases.
I don’t know what standard of proof the Italian court would expect, whether it is beyond reasonable doubt or something else. I suspect it might be something closer to the "preponderance of evidence"standard, which is much weaker than "beyond reasonable doubt."
However that may be, there’s evidence to prove it.
The question is whether one is willing to give proper weight to the evidence that exists.
For a start, the gospels themselves–and the other New Testament documents mentioning Christ–have a weight that cannot simply be written off just because they’re documents of faith as well as documents of history. You can’t write off the historical value of a document just because it was written by someone who is a believer.
I mean, I’m sure that Father Divine‘s immediate followers wrote about him (and if they didn’t, let’s suppose that they did). Just because they were believers in him doesn’t deprive their documents of all historical value. I mean, if I’m a detective trying to figure out if Father Divine existed and I’m looking at these documents, I’ll factor out the parts where they’re talking about Father Divine being God (something I don’t believe), but I’ll still give the documents weight when it comes to attesting to Father Divine’s historical existence.
Now some folks will concede that the New Testament documents would have similar weight if they were written by eye-witnesses or close associates of eye-witnesses, but they challenge the latter point.
Okay. We can fight that one out.
I think–and the VAST majority of Bible scholars (Christian AND non-Christian) agree with me–that the New Testament documents were (wholly or almost wholly) written in the first century. That means that they were written within seventy years of Jesus’ life, which was within the lifespans of many eye-witnesses and the associates of eye-witnesses.
Granting that, that means that they have historical weight that just can’t be written off. (Just as I couldn’t write off the weight of documents written by followers of Father Divine within seventy years of his life.)
I think that there is EXTREMELY good reason to date the books of Luke and Acts to c. A.D. 60, which is even closer (30 years) to Christ’s life, and if you buy the idea that Luke wrote based on Mark then that would put Mark even earlier.
But let’s suppose that you don’t buy these first century datings. Suppose that you think that the New Testament documents were written–say–in the second and third centuries.
Okay, even then the documents don’t seem to have all come out of one place. They seem to be responding to a widespread movement, and there’s significant evidence from secular sources that Christianity was a widespread movement in the second and third centuries.
For example, Pliny the Younger wrote a famous letter to the Emperor Trajan (reigned A.D. 98-117) about what he ought to do regarding the Christians in his provice of Bithynia. Commenting on the extent of Christianity in his province at this time, he writes that the emperor should pay attention to the Christian problem because:
[I]t appears to be a matter highly deserving your consideration, more especially as great numbers must be involved in the danger of these prosecutions, which have already extended, and are still likely to extend, to persons of all ranks and ages, and even of both sexes. In fact, this contagious superstition is not confined to the cities only, but has spread its infection among the neighbouring villages and country. Nevertheless, it still seems possible to restrain its progress. The temples, at least, which were once almost deserted, begin now to be frequented; and the sacred rites, after a long intermission, are again revived; while there is a general demand for the victims, which till lately found very few purchasers [SOURCE].
Pliny also mentions that some of the persons he interrogated said that they had been Christians at one time, but that was more than twenty years ago.
I don’t have a specific dating of this letter, but even if we assume that it was in the last year of Trajan’s reign (it may be posible to date it earlier, but for the sake of argument let’s go with that), it seems that Christianity was significantly widespread in Bithynia in the first quarter of the second century that it was seriously impacting pagan worship.
And Pliny is just ONE datapoint.
So I don’t see how one can reasonably claim that Christianity wasn’t a widespread movement in the second century.
But movements take time to grow, especially before the age of the Internet, and ESPECIALLY when there are costs of joining the movement, like getting in trouble with the state. (Trajan wrote back and said people are to be punished if they are found to be Christians.)
So how long did Christianity have to grow?
Here is where I think the New Testament (and other early Christian) documents can play a role, even from a skeptical perspective.
They are in agreement that the founder of their movement was Jesus of Nazareth, who was born no later than the last quarter of the first century B.C. (Really the last decade, but let’s leave that fuzzy.)
That’s important because if they had been able to plausibly claim that he had lived earlier then THEY WOULD HAVE DONE SO.
Antiquity counts in the religion business. People will take your religious movement a lot less seriously if it just started last week as opposed to being hundreds or thousands of years old. Youth puts religious movements at a tactical disadvantage, and so people want to claim as much antiquity for their movements as they can.
(Just look at the way some Baptists claim that their movement really went all the way to the first century instead of just to the 1600s.)
You can even see the early Christian apologists trying to do a variation of this by claiming that, even though–yes–Jesus HIMSELF was only born recently, Christianity is still really old because it’s the completion of Judaism and so it gets to claim Judaism’s antiquity for itself.
So even from a skeptical perspective we’re on pretty solid ground saying that the Christian movement did not exist–even in the person of its alleged founder–any earlier than the last quarter of the first century B.C.
So: Between the last quarter of the first century B.C. and the first quarter of the second century A.D. we have a movement that goes from NOTHING (no members) to being widespread enough to provoke serious imperial notice in different parts of the empire and, according to some accounts (Pliny’s), is big enough to make a sizable dent in pagan worship in some locations.
That’s not a lot of time.
Specifically: It’s not enough time for your movement to have retroactively created a mythical founder for itself and have belief in that founder spread throughout your movement.
That’s the kind of thing that can happen in hundreds of years, but not this kind of short timeframe.
Which is why the overwhelming majority of historians and biblical scholars–whatever their religious convictions–acknowledge that Jesus of Nazareth at least existed.
There are a few people who don’t. In fact, I recently met a very nice fellow of the Jesus Seminar (I’m not kidding; he’s been REALLY nice to me personally) who isn’t sure whether Jesus of Nazareth existed–a position I find so hard to argue that I bought his book to see how he argues it.
But the bottom line, if I may put it this way, is that there is so much Christian "smoke" in the second and third centuries that I don’t see how it could be successfully argued that there was no first century "fire" in the person of Jesus of Nazareth, kicking off the movement.
Even if someone is not a Christian and doesn’t believe any of the Christian religious claims, I don’t see how that much can be reasonably denied.
So whether one uses "preponderance of evidence" or "beyond a reasonable doubt," I think the Italian priest should (if he does his homework) be on safe ground in provind the existence of Jesus for the court.
But then we’re talking about the Italian legal system, so who knows.
(Sorry. Momentary lapse of self-control.)