The Presumption Of Faith

A reader writes:

I’ve never heard the term "presumption of faith" used before but in thinking about the issue of Bishops withholding Communion from wayward politicians, it strikes me that the Church applies almost universally this principle (expressed in other ways).

Like presumption of innocence in court, the Church presumes faith when one asks for any of the sacraments.  Because we cannot know another’s heart as God can, we have to take their word that they are able to receive the sacrament and believe what the sacrament does.

In the case of communion, it has been said many times that the confessional is empty and the communion lines are full.  Logic, knowledge of human concupiscence, and just the results of some of the most recent surveys of Catholics tells us that there is something wrong with the picture, but in the communion line the Church applies presumption of faith because she has to.

It is only where a person publically advertises their sin and just as publically seeks communion while demonstrating no purpose of amendment (a requisite for a good confession if that confession had indeed taken place privately), it is only in that kind a circumstance that a public response is required to avert scandal.

Others holding the same views privately and acting upon those views could receive communion in an unworthy manner and the priest or bishop may never know because they are acting on the presumption of faith.

And so on.

Does that make any sense as a concept?

It does, though I’d tweak it a bit.

There is indeed a presumption that the Church makes in admitting people to Communion, though it isn’t just a presumption that they have faith. It also presumes that they meet the other requirements for Communion, such as being in a state of grace, having the proper dispositions, having fasted for an hour before the moment of Communion, and so forth. These are summed up under the heading of "worthiness to receive Communion" (which is a bit paradoxical given that immediately before Communion we say "Lord, I am not worthy to receive you," but there we are). I’d therefore phrase the presumption as a presumption of worthiness rather than a presumption of faith.

This presumption holds except in very specific cases. A Catholic presenting himself for holy Communion is not to be denied except unless he is prohibited by law from receiving. The Code of Canon Law provides:

Can.  912 Any baptized person not prohibited by law can and must be admitted to holy communion.

Now, there are people who are prohibited by law from receiving (e.g., because they’re in mortal sin, because they haven’t fasted, etc.), but in the practice of the Church the evaluation of these criteria is left to the individual communicant in the vast majority of cases. The only time in the Code that priest and other ministers of Communion are told not to give Communion to a person who presents himself is in the following canon:

Can.  915 Those who have been excommunicated or interdicted after the imposition or declaration of the penalty and others obstinately persevering in manifest grave sin are not to be admitted to holy communion.

Since declared excommunications (as opposed to automatic excommunications) and declared interdicts are as rare as hen’s teeth, the most commonly triggered part of this canon is that concerning "others obstinately persevering in manifest grave sin." That means people who are publicly known to be involved in grave sin and who refuse to amend their ways.

As a practical matter, only those individuals are denied Communion (if even they are). Otherwise the presumption of worthiness to receive holy Communion operates.

Descended From David

A reader writes:

Jimmy, I have been bothered by the question of Jesus’ geneology.  A lot of scripture refers to Him as son of David, descended from David’s line etc., and I think it traces the geneology down through Joseph, who was not Jesus’ natural father.  Can you help me here?

A lot of folks have this question, and it’s natural to wonder about this.

It’s true that Jesus was not physically descended from Joseph and thus could not have been physically descended from David via Joseph. However, physical descent is not the only form of descent there is.

There’s also adoptive descent or legal descent.

This occurred in a variety of contexts in ancient Hebrew society. As members of a patriarchical society, everybody in Israel needed to be related to somebody in order to know their place in the world, and this led to a lot of adoptions, including adoptions that were done posthumously–after the death of the person "doing" the adoption.

That’s essentially what’s going on in the case of the levirate marriage. If a man died childless, his brother was expected to marry the widow in order to produce a son who would legally be the son of the dead man. That’s a kind of posthumous "adoption" of the son by his deceased legal father, who happens not to be the same individual as his biological father.

Yet this didn’t stop the son’s sons from being reckoned as the dead man’s grandsons. Legal descent was counted as descent in a real and binding way. In fact, in the case of the levirite marriage, legal descent was more important than biological descent, for producing a legal heir to the dead man was the whole reason for the levirite marriage to being with.

There is some evidence that levirite marriages occurred in the genealogies of Christ.

SEE HERE.

So if legal descent of that kind doesn’t interrupt the descent of Christ from David then Christ being legally but not biologically the son of Joseph wouldn’t either.

This, then, may be how we are to understand Christ’s descent from David: He was a legal heir of David and so he was a son of David. Period. The biology doesn’t matter.

Or it may be that there is more to it.

St. Paul says in Romans 1:3 that Christ was "descended from  David according to the flesh." There’s a question here about how literally he means the word "flesh." He may just mean it to mean "humanly," in which case he could just be thinking of Christ’s legal descent from David via Joseph.

But he may mean the term more literally than that. If he does then . . . well . . . Christ got flesh from Mary, so perhaps Mary was also a descendant of David and Christ received biological descent from David in that fashion.

Helping With Secret Project #4!

If you’re a regular JA.O blog reader who lives in Southern California–within driving distance of El Cajon–I’ve got a special offer.

Catholic Answers wants to accelerate the work being done on Secret Project #4, and we’re looking for local folks to help us from home!

To help, you’d need:

1) A computer
2) A word processor (preferably Microsoft Word; if not that then something compatible)
3) E-mail
4) To be able to drive or otherwise get to Catholic Answers to pick up materials.
5) Some free time between now and mid-August (a number of hours worth, the more the better, though as few as six would do) and
6) To keep quiet about what is revealed to you about the project.

This is help that could be done at night or on weekends. Responsible older teenagers wanting some extra Summer money would be able to help with it as well.

It’s not at all hard or complex work–just doing very simple things in a word processor (in fact, it could be a bit unchallenging).

There would be some modest pay ($$) involved, and in addition you’d have our profound thanks (!!) and the knowledge that you helped with a project that has the potential to revolutionize the field of apologetics.

If you’re interested, E-MAIL ME and let me know your availability and phone number.

Thanks much, folks!

Undesired Blog Day Off

Sorry, folks, but except for the note immediately above this one, I’m afraid that I’m having to take an undesired blog day off.

TypePad’s service was down Wednesday evening (and much of the day) and this prevented me from blogging. Assuming there are no new problems, normal blogging should resume tomorrow.

UPDATE: TypePad seems to have had to revert to a backup copy of their system in order to solve the problem they were having. As a result, some of my posts went back into draft mode (they have now been restored) and it looks like they lost yesterdays comments. Rats. I loved Suzanne’s amazingly candid one on the post about godparents.

Coming Soon To A Pocket Near You

Apple and Microsoft appear to both be trying to get out an interesting new product in time for Christmas: the wireless iPod (or, in Microsoft’s case, a wireless mp3 player):

Current iPod owners have to sit in front of a computer to download music onto the gadget. But with the wireless version, they would be able to download new songs anywhere and at any time – as long as there is a wireless network in the area.

GET THE STORY.

I thought the story was interesting, and it touched on some additional interesting things, but I’m not bowled over by the idea of a wireless iPod.

I use my iPod every day (mostly for audiobooks), and I think it would be nice to have the ability to download content wirelessly, but that’s not the highest thing on my most-wanted iPod features list.

I haven’t had a lot of success using wireless hotspots with my laptop, and I don’t know if they’d fare much better with a wireless iPod.

They also aren’t all over the place (yet). If I could have cellphone-type coverage for downloads (i.e., if I could take my iPod virtually anywhere and get content), that would be better, but I just don’t hang out in wi-fi hotspots (not even Starbucks).

And then there’s the matter of trying to navigate a wireless music store with a click wheel. Ick.

What I’d rather have a Bluetooth iPod so I could get the content from my computer without having to hook up the iPod physically.

Built-in speakers for the iPod would be even better.

What I’d like most of all are good wireless earbuds (probably kept in a compartment inside the iPod when not in use so they can recharge) that have significant battery life so that I can listen to my iPod in public without having that annoying cord between the Pod and the buds.

I know that there are already some wireless headsets for iPods, but I haven’t been impressed with the ones I’ve seen thus far, and I’d rather have earbuds that I could plug into the iPod for recharging when not in use.

But that’s just me.

Whadda y’all want in an iPod (or equivalent device)?

More on Godparents

A reader writes:

My husband and I converted to Catholicism 4 years ago.  We are currently expecting our 5th child, the 3rd to be born since our reception into the Church.  My question concerns the choosing of Godparents for this new child.  Is it ok for us to choose the same set of Godparents for this child as for one of the other children?  We have many devout Christian friends and family, but they are mainly Protestants and so unsuitable for Godparents.  There are very few Catholic couples that are we close enough to, and know their faith well enough to ask them to be Godparents.  The two couples that we have already asked are still the best candidates from our "pool" of friends and family.   I would like to know what is okay canonically, as well as what the tradition on this question is. 

Canonically there is no problem at all in having the same godparents for one child as for another. There is no canonical requirement that one child in a family must have a different set of godparents than another, as can be seen from our recent discussion of the requirements.

As far as what is traditional–well, that may vary significantly from culture to culture. In America it seems to me that most Catholics (at least the ones that I know) tend to have different godparents for different children–at least most of the time–but this is in no way binding.

Doing the best thing for the kid would take priority in my mind, and if that mean having the same ones for different kids because those are the best ones available, then that’s what I’d do.

Incidentally, thanks for giving me the occasion to tie up another couple of godparent questions that came up in our previous discussion.

There was some question about whether a person who is non-Christian could serve as a formal "witness" to the baptism. The answer is that, by my reading of the canon, the answer is no.

What the canon (CIC 874) says is:

§2. A baptized person who belongs to a non-Catholic ecclesial community is not to participate except together with a Catholic sponsor and then only as a witness of the baptism.

Now, the phrase "baptized person who belongs to a non-Catholic ecclesial community" has a technical meaning in canon law, and what it means is: Protestant.

Eastern Orthodox can be godparents, as we noted, as long as there is also a Catholic godparent (see sectoin 98b of this document) don’t fall under that designation because they have validly ordained bishops and so are members of churches rather than "ecclesial communities." Because Protestants don’t (in general) have validly ordained bishops they don’t have "churches" in the full sense and so Vatican II and canon law use the term "ecclesial community" to refer to their communions.

In the declartion Dominus Iesus, Cardinal Ratzinger noted:

[T]he ecclesial communities which have not preserved the valid Episcopate and the genuine and integral substance of the Eucharistic mystery, are not Churches in the proper sense; however, those who are baptized in these communities are, by Baptism, incorporated in Christ and thus are in a certain communion, albeit imperfect, with the Church (no. 17).

Canon 874 §2 is thus making a specific exception for baptized Protestants to serve as designated witnesses, together with a Catholic godparent. It is not making an exception for non-Christians.

The rule is thus that there is always to be at least one Catholic godparent, who can be either male or female.

If there is an additional godparent then it must be of the opposite sex and can be either Catholic or Eastern Orthodox.

There also can be a Catholic godparent and a baptized Protestant witness.

A non-Christian or a non-baptized Protestant (some Protestant groups do not mandate baptism) could not serve as a witness but would have to have a looser, less official relationship with the child, such as an unofficial "uncle" or mentor or something.

Taking Your Heart Medicine

A reader writes:

Jimmy (may I presume to use your first name? If not, Mr. Akin):

I love listening to you on Catholic Answers — as they say in talk radio, I’m a long time listener, first time talker. Anyhow, your excellent discussion of the stem cell issue leads me to ask a different question on Catholic medical ethics:

Ken Lay died of a heart attack recently. If he had stopped taking heart medicine, thus hastening his death, would that be suicide? To what extent is someone required to take life-saving medicine?

The Catechism does not seem to contain a technical definition of suicide, so I’m going to have to fall back on my own understanding of the term, which is that suicide is undertaking a course of action in order to bring about one’s own death.

By undertaking a course of action, this doesn’t have to mean taking positive action, like putting a gun to one’s head or injecting a toxic drug into your body. It can also be refusing to do those things that would reasonably be expected of a person in an effort to preserve his life.

For example, if you found yourself in the middle of a busy street with a bus bearing down on you and you refused to step out of the way so that you could get run over and die then I would say that was suicide even though the "action" you performed was a refusal to do something (i.e., step out of the path of the bus).

For someone taking heart medicine (and I notice that you didn’t say Ken Lay was or that he discontinued taking it, you just used him as a hypothetical example), a refusal to take the medicine would seem to count as suicide if two conditions were fulfilled:

1) The person discontinued the medication in order to bring about their death, and
2) The personal was morally obligated to take the medication.

A person could discontinue taking the medicine without fulfilling condition (1) if there was some other reason for the discontinuation. For example, the person may have run out of the medicine and didn’t have the money to buy more and couldn’t find a source that would donate it to him. (This might be the case for many people with heart problems in the third world, for example.) It might also be that the heart medicine was causing horrible side effects (let’s say he developed a severe allergy to it) and the motive was to stop the allergic reactions rather than to bring about his own death. He might also have joined a religion that forbids the use of medicine.

If his motive was something other than bringing about his own death then I wouldn’t be inclined to call it suicide. I think that the intention to kill oneself is an indispensible part of suicide in the proper sense. It’s that intention that distinguishes suicide, for example, from recklessly endangering one’s life (i.e., taking unacceptable risks with it in the absence of the intention to kill oneself).

Note that the motive might or might not be a good one. If he has a good reason for discontinuing the medication (like, he simply can’t get any more) then if he dies as a result of not taking it then he has no moral culpability in his death. On the other hand, he might have a bad motive (like he just doesn’t like the color of the pills). In the latter case he would bear moral culpability for his death, though the sin would not be suicide in the proper sense since there was not an intent to bring about his own death (the intent being not to take pills of that color).

All this deals with the first condition necessary for suicide. Now let’s look at the second:

What medical treatments are morally obligatory? Historically, this question has been answered in terms of "extraordinary" vs. "ordinary" treatments. Those treatments that were ordinary were ones that a person was morally expected to perform, whlie extraordinary ones were not morally obligatory.

This distinction worked well in the 1500s, when medicine wasn’t changing very fast. People had an intuitive sense of what procedures were ordinary vs. extraordinary, but with the massive change in medical technology that we are currently in the middle of, treatments that were once not just extraordinary but impossible are now totally ordinary (e.g., taking your insulin if you’re a Type 1 diabetic).

Consequently, Catholic moral theology has been reframing the discussion not in terms of what is ordinary vs. extraordinary but what is proportionate vs. disproportionate. The Holy See’s 1980 Declaration on Euthanasia takes note of this:

In the past, moralists replied that one is never obliged to use "extraordinary" means. This reply, which as a principle still holds good, is perhaps less clear today, by reason of the imprecision of the term and the rapid progress made in the treatment of sickness. Thus some people prefer to speak of "proportionate" and "disproportionate" means.

The distinction between what is proportionate and what is disproportionate is dealt with by what the declaration goes on to say:

In any case, it will be possible to make a correct judgment as to the means by studying the type of treatment to be used, its degree of complexity or risk, its cost and the possibilities of using it, and comparing these elements with the result that can be expected, taking into account the state of the sick person and his or her physical and moral resources.

In other words, there is a cost:benefit analysis that needs to be performed, comparing the costs (pain, discomfort, side-effects, money) to the benefits he will receive. If the benefits clearly outweigh the costs then the procedure is proportionate to the problem it is trying to address. On the other hand, if the costs clearly outweigh the benefits then the procedure is disproportionate.

Now, whenever the word "proportionate" gets involved in a moral discussion, some folks are inclined to start lobbing accusations of "proportionalism," so I need to issue

THE BIG RED DISCLAIMER: What I am talking about here is not proportionalism. Proportionalism is a system of thought that makes the proportions of costs and benefits the ONLY criteria to be taken into account in a moral appraisal. That’s why it’s got the -ism tacked on to the end of "proportional," because it makes proportionality the be-all and end-all of moral theology.

Under proportionalism one could not only forego treatment if the costs outweighed the benefits, one could positively kill the patient–put a gun to his head and pull the trigger–if it were deemed that the benefits of doing so (ending suffering) were greater than the costs (one bullet).

Proportionalism is a false moral system, but not all discussion of proportionality means that someone is advocating proportionalism. Orthodox Catholic moral theologians discussion proportionality all the time. It’s just when it gets made into the exclusive criteria of morality that we have proportionalism.

And the Holy See is not averse to taking the proportionality of the costs to the benefits into account, as see from the quotation above and from what the Declaration on Euthanasia goes on to say:

It is also permitted, with the patient’s consent, to interrupt these [advanced or even experimental] means, where the results fall short of expectations. But for such a decision to be made, account will have to be taken of the reasonable wishes of the patient and the patient’s family, as also of the advice of the doctors who are specially competent in the matter. The latter may in particular judge that the investment in instruments and personnel is disproportionate to the results foreseen; they may also judge that the techniques applied impose on the patient strain or suffering out of proportion with the benefits which he or she may gain from such techniques.

The document also says:

Therefore one cannot impose on anyone the obligation to have recourse to a technique which is already in use but which carries a risk or is burdensome. Such a refusal is not the equivalent of suicide; on the contrary, it should be considered as an acceptance of the human condition, or a wish to avoid the application of a medical procedure disproportionate to the results that can be expected, or a desire not to impose excessive expense on the family or the community.

When inevitable death is imminent in spite of the means used, it is permitted in conscience to take the decision to refuse forms of treatment that would only secure a precarious and burdensome prolongation of life, so long as the normal care due to the sick person in similar cases is not interrupted. In such circumstances the doctor has no reason to reproach himself with failing to help the person in danger.

So: It seems to me that whether a refusal to take one’s heart medicine is suicide will depend (1) on whether the persons is discontinuing it precisely in order to cause his death and (2) whether the use of the heart medicine is proportionate to the benefits it will give the patient.

If a person can reasonably afford the heart medicine and it is expected to keep him alive without causing horrible suffering then it seems to me that the use of the medicine is proportionate to the benefit to be achieved and thus he is morally obliged to take it.

If he refuses to take it in order to kill himself then it’s suicide. If he refuses to take it for some other inadequate reason then it is something else, such as reckless endangerment of his life.

Hope this helps!

Rule 3 Reminder

Just a note to folks who may be new to the blog that it operates under Da Rulz.

One of these is Rule 3, which states:

3. Also because of the format restrictions, everyone must be concise. Don’t go on at length about things. Pasting large amounts of text into the combox also counts as going on at length. Going on at length constitutes rudeness.

We’ve had a couple of posts lately where people were violating this–I think simply because they’re new to the site and weren’t aware of Rule 3–so I wanted to post a general reminder rather than just starting to delete overly long comments.

Thanks for your cooperation!

In Search Of Ancient Astronauts?

Cthulhu_1Y’know that Erich von Daniken book Chariots of the Gods that was such a phenomenon back in the 1970s, what with its claim that ancient astronauts visited the earth and left behind various ancient mysteries along with legends turning them into ancient deities?

Boy, that book is annoying.

I mean, I’m sorry, but Ezekiel just did not see a flying saucer.

And the Nazca lines are just not alien landing strips (though NASCAR race tracks might be).

Well, as annoying as his book are (and they’ve inspired even more annoying imitators, like Zecharia Sitchin–as well as cool things, like Stargate SG-1), von Daniken wasn’t the first person to have the idea of deities "really" being aliens.

Others had that before him.

H.P. Lovecraft, for example.

And, it turns out,

THERE’S A DIRECT CHAIN LINKING LOVECRAFT’S WORKS WITH VON DANIKEN’S.
(CHT to the reader who e-mailed!)

Embryonic Stem Cell Research

A reader writes:

I wanted to pose a question given the Church’s teaching on embryonic stem cell research. I have a good friend that is suffering from a serious illness that will likely end her life earlier than average. This is an illness that, valid or not, numerous claims about stem cells being the source of a cure for this illness. For purposes of this question, let’s set aside the current practical understanding (ESCR hasn’t yielded any successful advances at this point, while adult stem cell research is more promising). Let’s assume that, at some point in the future (as ESCR is unfortunately likely to happen in private labs at the least), such research yields a complete cure for this illness. How does the current Church teaching extend to that scenario?

Currently, it is sinful for researchers to perform this and (correct me if I’m wrong) sinful to encourage or provide funding for it.

How does that apply to someone whose life would be extended if they receive that cure? If a cure is made available, does the Church teach that an individual will be committed a grave sin in receiving the cure?

Does it matter how the cure is developed (i.e., research yields a method that does not require killing off embryos – the initial research is sinful, what does that make the resulting method)? I’m not trying to look for a “loophole” here…I’m trying to grasp a better understanding of the application of the Church teaching so I can explain it better to my friend. Any help you could provide in explaining this better would be greatly appreciated.

This is an area of ongoing doctrinal development, so the best I can do is sketch the current shape of my own understanding of how to apply the relevant principles to this area. There may be medical facts I am unaware of, and the Church may later clarify things in a way that is different than what I sketch below.

Let’s start by being clear about what is intrinsically wrong here: killing embryonic human beings. That is the thing that is intrinsically wrong. Other things in this area are not intrinsically wrong–or have not been said by the Church to be instrinsically wrong–but may be extrinsically wrong based on how they relate to the killing of embryonic humans.

It is thus wrong to kill an embryonic human in order to develop a cell line out of his body, but it is not wrong–or has not been judged by the Church to be wrong–to extract stem cells from an adult (without killing him) in order to generate a cell line.

Once you’ve got the cell line, it is intrinsically possible to experiment on it and try to develop cures from it. The cell line is not a human being (unless you are culturing it in a way that results in the creation of zygotes, which may be the case in some instances) and so the cell line has no rights to be violated. Whether the cell line originated from an embryo who was killed or an adult who was not killed does not affect the moral character of experimenting on it as long as it does not give rise to new humans.

The source of concern at this point is whether conducting such experimentation–which is morally permitted in principle–is whether doing so will reward/encourage those who have killed embryos.

The Church is concerned to avoid the creation of widespread baby farming in order to get new cell lines for research. If allowing research on cells lines that came from murdered babies is something that will result in the murder of thousands or millions of more babies then–as a practical matter–refusing to allow the research may be the best way to protect human life (taking into account the lives that might not be saved because the research doesn’t get done). In this case doing/funding the research would be extrinsically wrong, meaning that it is not wrong in itself but is wrong because it promotes something that is wrong in itself.

Unfortunately, when things are extrinsically wrong it often is unclear what their moral status is. If something is wrong in and of itself then we can be more definite about its moral status than if we’re trying to figure out what kind of cooperation is involved in an action that is wrong. There is thus often a judgment call that has to be made when it comes to whether an immoral form of cooperation is present.

Thus far the Church has not issued a judgment that experimenting on cell lines from embryos is (a) intrinsically evil or (b) always extrinsically evil due to an inadmissable form of cooperation with embryo killing. In the absence of such a judgment, Catholic researchers would be allowed to hold the position that it is permissible for them to conduct research on embryonic stem cell lines as long as they are not creating zygotes or otherwise encouraging the destruction of embryos.

I strongly suspect, though, that if pressed the Vatican would also protect the right of Catholic researchers not to hold this opinion and to refuse to participate in the research.

Why do I say that?

Because there is also the question of how this impacts your friend: Supposing a cure were developed from such a cell line, could it be used?

Well, right now there are some treatments out there that, in one way or another, involve cells from aborted kids and the Holy See has defended the right of Catholics not to use these treatments even if they are required by local laws (e.g., as part of childhood vaccinations).

The current state of affairs is thus that the Church seems to permit Catholics to hold either position: that it is permissible to fund, research, or take treatments based on stem cell lines coming from embryos as long as one isn’t improperly cooperating in the deaths of new humans OR that one should refuse to fund, research, or take treatments based on such cell lines in order to avoid rewarding/encouraging those who would kill babies.

This is a tricky area, and I espect we will get more clarification from the Church in the future, but that is what seems to be the attitude it is taking for now.

Incidentally, this is not the only time that this kind of situation has come up. It also came up after World War II when it was discovered that the Nazis had done all kinds of medical experimentation on Jewish individuals and there was the question of what to do with the research they had amassed: use it or not?

We can adapt that situation a little bit to the case of stem cells in order to get at the central dilemma. What I’m about to say will be nightmarish, but we’re dealing with a nightmare scenario here, and it helps to remember that and to put a human face on it.

With embryonic stem cell research, what we’re talking about it killing children in order to get medical consumables from them that may then save lives.

Okay: So suppose that you are an Allied pilot who gets shot down over Nazi Germany and you are badly in need of a transfusion, without which you will die.

A Catholic doctor takes pity on you and offers you the transfusion, but he feels that you ought to know the source of the blood, and it turns out that the Nazis have been killing Jewish individuals specifically to get their blood for use in transfusions.

This morning the doctor received a shipment of blood of your type that was extracted from a little girl–Anne Frank–who was killed so that people like you could have her blood.

Do you take the transfusion or not?

It’s a nightmare scenario, but that’s the kind of thing we’re talking about.

Incidentally, one might note that Nazi Germany wasn’t a democracy and wouldn’t care about whether you refused the transfusion or not. On the other hand, we might note that while we are living in a democracy here in America, if widespread baby farming gets started then the drug companies and research labs won’t care about your individual refusal to take their treatments, either.

That’s the situation we’re left to wrestle with.

BUT HERE’S SOME GOOD NEWS.